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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A 1. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?
It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.
It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force.
It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.



2. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?
The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase.
The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.
The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase.



3. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:
it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km.
its velocity is 6 m/s.
it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km.



4. The chord is:
the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil.
the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil.
the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts.



5. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:
lift, mass and drag.
lift and overpressure.
the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag.



6. Spiral is a flight mode when:
the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing.
the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil.
the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing.



7. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:
does not change.
increases.
decreases.



8. The lift on the aerofoil:
is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil.
is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil.
is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing.



9. The most common wind direction in the valley caused by thermal effects is:
during the night towards the hill.
during the day down the hill.
during the day towards the hill.



10. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:
at noon.
in winter at midday.
in summer at midday.



11. Low level cloud can be:
Ac – altocumulus
Ci – cirrus
St – stratus



12. Condensed isobars on the synoptic map indicate:
high temperature difference.
pressure level of the area.
greater pressure difference and therefore stronger wind.



13. In the air mass without cloudiness, the air temperature at the surface is 15 ° C and 1000 m higher the temperature is 13 ° C. This layer of air is:
conditionally unstable.
unstable.
stable.



14. What are the characteristic signs of the weather on the leeward side of the mountains during Fohn?
Overcast, precipitation, good visibility.
Variable cloudiness and occasional rain, moderate or no wind.
Few clouds, unusual increase of temperature, low humidity, often strong winds.



15. Dangerous storm phenomena are:
strong updrafts with maximums in the upper half of CB cloud, stong turbulence, strong downdrafts with maximums near the CB cloudbase, frosts, electric characteristics of the Cb cloud.
the density of the Cb cloud which consists of liquid and solid state of water.
strong updrafts and hight of the Cb could.



16. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:
increased.
decreased.
unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.



17. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?
Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air.
Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.
Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.



18. When entering a downdraft:
the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.
the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.
the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse.



19. Spiral is performed by:
weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.
pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.
a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.



20. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:
the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge.
the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.
the wind in the valley by the landing zone.



21. I increase the flight speed by:
depressing the speed system.
pulling a bit of steering.
pulling the trimmers.



22. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:
The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole.
identical.
not identical.



23. Geographical meridian is:
a circle around the globe.
a half of meridian circle.
a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis.



24. Course is measured in degrees from north:
clockwise.
clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west.
counterclockwise.



25. Comparative navigation involves:
comparing the calculated times with the reality.
comparing terrain with a map and vice versa.
comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map.



26. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:
against the wind.
perpendicularly to the wind from left.
with the wind.



27. Time is reported:
in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute.
in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec.
in degrees.



28. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:
using the reserve parachute.
to execute a descending maneuvre.
stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.



29. The reserve parachute is used so that:
Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated.
By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost.
Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.



30. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:
a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes.
a life jacket and a flare.
a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers.



31. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:
I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.
I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines.
I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing.



32. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:
to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.
to pull the steering fully.
to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.



33. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:
pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy.
weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci
no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself.



34. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:
at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically.
outside the clouds and in visibility of ground.
only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud.



35. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:
coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner.
coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator.
observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules.



36. A pilot must always have:
a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.
a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation.
a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.



37. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:
the aircraft commander (pilot).
the head of air traffic.
the operator.



38. Restricted air space (LK R):
can be passed through under specified conditions.
must be passed through.
must not be passed through.



39. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:
official CAA map.
valid AIP or ICAO map.
ADAC map.



40. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:
in FL 125.
in 1500 m AMSL.
in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map).



41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:
winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.
UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.
sun and wrong packing.



42. Initial examination includes:
vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.
fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.
finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.



43. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:
We need to use another compress bandage.
The tourniquet needs tightening.
Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up.



44. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:
the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape.
his paragliding harness.
into a stretcher tied straight branches.



45. A pilot should have his mobile phone:
placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident.
switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight.
placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body.



46. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:
Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger.
The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable.
If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider.



47. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:
by the lower end of chest bone.
in the middle of chest bone.
next to left nipple.



48. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:
1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions).
Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check.
1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions.



49. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:
fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment.
thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side.
convenient position, thermal comfort, calming.



50. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:
We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better.
We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case.
We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet.