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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. In a normal steady flight:

there is overpressure on the upper surface and negative pressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is overpressure on the upper and lower surface of the wing. there is negative pressure on the upper surface and overpressure on the lower surface of the wing.

2. When air flow is laminar:

there is no relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is a relative mix of streamlines.

3. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in the same direction. when the air particles are not moving. the flow of air particles in different directions.

4. The optimal gliding ratio can be flown:

with critical angle of attack. with two different angles of attack. with just one angle of attack.

5. The lift coefficient is influenced the most by:

the air foil thickness. the air foil curving. the speed of flow.

6. The chord is:

the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts. the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil. the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil.

7. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed. the weight and lift ratio. the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider.

8. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km.

9. Among the typical local winds belongs the wind called "Föhn":

It blows especially in vast dry plains in the autumn. It blows from the valley to the mountains. It blows from the mountains to the valley.

10. In what part of a day is the highest probability of mass storm occurrence in Middle Europe?

Noon, afternoon. Late morning. Around midnight.

11. Which of the following cloud types may reach up into the stratosphere?

Cumulonimbus Cumulus Cirrostratus

12. Which of the following types of cloud is considered low level cloud?

As Ns St

13. What vertical temperature stratification is typical for advection fog?

Isothermy. Drop of temperature with altitude. Inversion.

14. Which of the following clouds can spread over several levels (according to hight levels of clouds)?

Altocumulus Nimbostratus Cirrus

15. In troposphere, at vertical rise of 100 m the pressure drop:

is lower in higher altitudes then in lower altitudes. is the same in all altitudes. is higher in higher altitudes then in lower altitudes.

16. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Three. Five.

17. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

18. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse.

19. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

20. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

21. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope.

22. Course is measured in degrees from north:

counterclockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. clockwise.

23. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

24. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to locate and identify several landmarks. to focus on one landmark.

25. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods. depending on the intensity of sunlight.

26. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain place name. certain geographical location. time zone position.

27. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

28. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly.

29. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

30. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

31. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. in rapid uncontrolable rotation. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

32. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines.

33. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

dense forest. a lonely tree. a forest road.

34. Airport operations are:

all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area. all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport.

35. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 95 (2900 m) FL 125 (3800 m) FL 85 (2600 m)

36. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m STD 300 m AMSL 300 m AGL

37. From a sport aircraft (SLZ) it is forbidden:

to spray. to drop things between sunrise and sunset. to drop anything or spray, except under certain conditions.

38. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR. to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN.

39. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left. You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left.

40. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

80 degrees. 70 degrees. 60 degrees.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing.

42. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents.

43. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective.

44. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease. should be used for taking care of any injury. should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds.

45. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

gentle transportation to the place of professional help. fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions. to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss.

46. The helmet of the afflicted:

should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck. should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting. must never be taken off.

47. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by waving any object of bright color. by standing with arms up in Y shape. by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape.

48. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.

49. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

a position that the afflicted person wants to take. the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„ a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position).

50. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain. If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position). If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it.