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Test - PL A

1. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

2. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase.

3. The resultant aerodynamic force consists of:

lift coefficient and weight. lift and weight. lift and drag.

4. The main cause of the stall is always:

exceeding the critical angle of attack. decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider.

5. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the chord. always upwards from the aerofoil.

6. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

stays the same. increases. decreases.

7. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

In the middle of the glider. At the side parts of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed.

8. The lift on the aerofoil:

is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing.

9. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the lowest:

above poles. above Equator areas. in temperate zones.

10. Clouds in troposphere form from:

Nitrogen. Oxygen. water vapor.

11. Which of the following clouds can spread over several levels (according to hight levels of clouds)?

Nimbostratus Altocumulus Cirrus

12. Which basic parameters and phenomena determine the weather inside air masses?

Temperature, humidity, vertical temperature gradient. Precipitations and visibility. Pressure, clouds and air density.

13. On the northern hemisphere, the height of the troposphere, depending on latitude:

increases from south to north. decreases from south to north. is the same during the whole year.

14. The decrease of temperature with altitude in a standard atmosphere definition - vertical temperature gradient - has a value of:

0,6° C / 100 m. 0,65° C / 100 m. 1,0° C / 100 m.

15. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Advection fog. Radiation fog. Frontal fog.

16. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

17. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers.

18. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

19. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

20. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse.

22. The prime meridian is:

meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0.

23. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the compass needle free of any interferences. measurements on a map. the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south.

24. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

25. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

45 km 50 km 60 km

26. Time is reported:

in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec.

27. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. time zone position. certain place name.

28. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident.

29. The reserve parachute is used so that:

By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

30. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I release the steering continuously.

31. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. pull the second steering fully and then release both.

32. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

33. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

wait until the glider stops itself. pull the A risers or lines. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers.

34. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which is landing or in the final approach to the landing. which received permission for landing approach. which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices.

35. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

against the sun. from the right. from the left.

36. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight.

37. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

150 m 300 m 150 m except for ridge soaring.

38. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

39. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules.

40. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR. by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”. always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by standing with arms up in Y shape. by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape. by waving any object of bright color.

44. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The priority of an improvised transport is speed. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport.

45. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the body in extended position. hanging in a triangular bandage.

46. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart.

47. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond.

48. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

in the middle of chest bone. by the lower end of chest bone. next to left nipple.

49. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We promptly transport him to the professional medical service. First we try to free the airway. We start the resuscitation immediately.

50. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective.