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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight.

2. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts.

3. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

gravity force and lift plus drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift. lift and drag.

4. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is not changing. is changing due to a change of trailing edge position. is changing because the wing banks in the same moment.

5. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in the same direction. when the air particles are not moving. the flow of air particles in different directions.

6. At the critical angle of attack:

the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly. the drag coefficient drops abruptly. the lift coefficient sharply increases.

7. The main cause of the stall is always:

exceeding the critical angle of attack. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider. decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight.

8. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface.

9. We call it unstable stratification when in unsaturated air:

an unsaturated particle, after removal of the external force, returns to its original position. an unsaturated air particle as it exits from the equilibrium position continues to climb even when the external force ceases to act. an unsaturated particle stops at a level at which external force has ceased to act.

10. Which type of precipitation comes off water only containing clouds at mid-latitudes?

Light rain with big drops. Intensive rain. Drizzle.

11. What prevents the air flow from areas of high pressure directly into the area of low air pressure?

The force caused by the pressure gradient. The Coriolis force. Friction on the earth's surface.

12. Unsaturated adiabatic curve is showing the change in temperature with height of value:

0,65 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,60 °C / 100 m of hight. 1,00 °C / 100 m of hight.

13. Among high level clouds are:

Cc – cirrocumulus, Cs – cirrostratus Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus St – stratus, Sc – stratocumulus

14. Increasing distance between isobars means that in the given area the air velocity will be:

the distance between isobars tells nothing about the air velocity. slower. faster.

15. What thunder storms move forward the fastest?

Mass storms. Frontal storms. Orographic storms.

16. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

17. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

18. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased. decreased.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Five. Seven.

20. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

21. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

22. Geographical North and South:

are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. do not change location. change location depending on annual periods.

23. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

24. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the magnetic poles. the geological poles. the marine poles.

25. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

perpendicularly to the wind from left. against the wind. with the wind.

26. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. those with precise angles. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles.

27. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. not identical. identical.

28. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

electric wires. water surface. a parking.

29. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I release the steering continuously.

30. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing.

31. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

32. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre.

33. After a tall tree landing:

you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK. you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed. you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.)

34. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service.

35. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

the airport altitude AMSL. 0. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere.

36. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

1,5 km 5 km 8 km

37. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

70 degrees. 80 degrees. 60 degrees.

38. If two aircrafts are flying on lines facing each other or approximately such, each of them should give way by changing its course to the:

left. right. side which is more suitable for avoiding a crash.

39. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

from the left. from the right. against the sun.

40. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m AMSL 300 m AGL 300 m STD

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early.

43. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body.

44. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

45. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2.

46. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to wave by any object of red color. to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N).

47. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it.

48. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“

49. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the stabilized position. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid.

50. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain.