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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics. that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight.

2. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pulling the steering. Releasing the steering. Pushing the speed system.

3. Larger part of lift is generated:

above 2/3 of the aerofoil, around 55%. below the aerofoil, around 2/3. above the aerofoil, around 2/3.

4. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

decreases. stays the same. increases.

5. When air flow is laminar:

there is no relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is a relative mix of streamlines.

6. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end.

7. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed. the weight and lift ratio. the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider.

8. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

significant rise of forces in steering lines. sudden increase of descent rate. decrease of steering forces.

9. What vertical temperature stratification is typical for advection fog?

Isothermy. Drop of temperature with altitude. Inversion.

10. In the definition of standard atmosphere the pressure and temperature values at mean sea level are:

1015 hPa, +10°C 1013,25 hPa, 0°C 1013,25 hPa, +15°C

11. The air mass is called unstable if there are:

stratified clouds in it. convective vertical motions in it. inversions in it.

12. At the passing active II. kind cold front we encounter typical dangerous phenomena:

low clouds, thick stratiform clouds and strong persistent rainfall. icing, persistent rainfall, impaired visibility. strong turbulence, severe icing, active thunderstorm activity, heavy showers, strong winds.

13. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Persistent rainfall. Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing. Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts.

14. Wind significantly affects air traffic:

in all its stages. during landing and takeoff, but not in flight at flight level. only in flight at flight level.

15. With increasing height, atmospheric pressure:

does not change. increases and in the hight of 5.5 km is double of its value at the see level. decreases and in the hight of 5.5 km is a half of its value at the see level.

16. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

17. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

18. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

19. When entering a thermal current:

the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

20. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

21. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system.

22. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. depending on the intensity of sunlight. with annual periods.

23. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

24. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Paris. Moscow.

25. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the geological poles. the marine poles. the magnetic poles.

26. Direction south is reported by:

360° 090° 180°

27. Geographical North and South:

do not change location. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. change location depending on annual periods.

28. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind. against the wind. with the wind from a side.

29. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. pull the second steering fully and then release both. release the steering continuously.

30. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn.

31. If I stall the glider:

I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly.

32. For emergency landing You would prefer:

buildings. water. trees.

33. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing.

34. To recalculate a figure in meters into figure in feet we use the simplified formula:

(m x 3) + 10% (m : 10) x 3 (m x 3) : 10

35. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in 1500 m AMSL. in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map). in FL 125.

36. Flying above a gathering of people at such a height that would not allow a safe landing in case of danger without endangering pilots or people on the ground is:

possible only at an air show with a valid authorization issued. forbidden. allowed.

37. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight.

38. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud.

39. A light aircraft can be steered by:

a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a person authorized by the light aircraft operator in the presence of the pilot, or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid assessment on medical fitness or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum.

40. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing.

43. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. always as a priority on any wound or fracture. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger.

44. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter.

45. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid.

46. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. the process should be as fast as possible. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation.

47. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help.

48. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger. If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable.

49. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We promptly transport him to the professional medical service. We start the resuscitation immediately. First we try to free the airway.

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.