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Test - PL A

1. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag.

2. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

thrust and weight, drag and lift. lift and drag. gravity force and lift plus drag.

3. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease.

4. The main cause of the stall is always:

the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider. decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight. exceeding the critical angle of attack.

5. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest. the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall.

6. The aircraft falls when:

the pilot makes too sharp turn. it gets over the critical angle of attack. the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed.

7. The lift on the aerofoil:

is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing. is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil.

8. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span squared and wing surface. is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens.

9. What weather conditions are expected in temperate latitudes over land in summer in the middle of a stationary area of high pressure?

Weak winds, haze. Thunderstorms, clear air and strong winds. Ns clouds.

10. What thunder storms move forward the fastest?

Orographic storms. Mass storms. Frontal storms.

11. There are massive and pronounced Cb - cumulonimbus clouds forming in the area of a athmospheric front. It is a typical manifestation of:

warm front. warm ocluded front. II. type cold front.

12. Which of the following types of cloud is considered middle level clouds in the temperate latitudes?

As, Ac Ns, Ci St, Sc

13. Frontal fog forms usually on:

worm fronts. II. type cold fronts. stationary fronts.

14. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

drizzle. strong showers. persistent rainfall.

15. What do we mean by the term "clear thermic"?

Turbulence associated with a windshear. Strong gusty wind in a coud free environment. An ascending thermal current not topped by a cumulus cloud.

16. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope.

17. What does the term „spin” mean?

A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall.

18. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

19. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

20. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

21. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

22. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

20 km 50 km 200 km

23. Geographical meridian is:

a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a circle around the globe. a half of meridian circle.

24. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise. counterclockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west.

25. The horizontal velocity is given:

in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in knots. in feet.

26. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. north west. south west.

27. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. There is no difference. 1 hour.

28. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

29. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute.

30. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

against the wind. with the wind from a side. with the wind.

31. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost.

32. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight.

33. For emergency landing You would prefer:

buildings. water. trees.

34. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

from the left. from the right. against the sun.

35. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

150 m except for ridge soaring. 150 m 300 m

36. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment

37. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

nine months. six months. five months.

38. LAA regulation, which governs the rules of flying a paraglider in the Czech Republic is called:

ZL - 3 PL - 2 ZL - 1

39. If two or more aircrafts heavier then air are approaching one airport with the intention to land and the avoidance rules do not apply, the priority of landing is as follows:

the aircraft flying higher gives way to the lower flying aircraft. the slower aircraft gives way to the faster aircraft. the aircraft flying on left gives way to the aircraft flying from right.

40. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 125 (3800 m) FL 85 (2600 m) FL 95 (2900 m)

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

43. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help. Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are. If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious.

44. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond. after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect.

45. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective.

46. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status).

47. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. by the lower end of chest bone. in the middle of chest bone.

48. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.).

49. The telephone number of medical emergency service in the Czech Republic is:

155 150 158

50. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to wave by any object of red color. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N).