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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. When air flow is laminar:

there is no relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is a relative mix of streamlines.

2. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag. lift and overpressure. lift, mass and drag.

3. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil.

4. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is not changing. is changing due to a change of trailing edge position. is changing because the wing banks in the same moment.

5. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

0.25 kg/m3 4 kg/m3 0.4 kg/m3

6. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing. the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing.

7. Surface load:

indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area.

8. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

decreases. stays the same. increases.

9. The correct ICAO abbreviation of northwest wind is:

NW SE SW

10. Wind is:

the horizontal flow (moving) of the air. the mixing of air particles. the vertical air movement.

11. Which of the following cloud types may reach up into the stratosphere?

Cirrostratus Cumulus Cumulonimbus

12. Saturated adiabatic curve is showing the change in temperature with height of value:

0,60 °C / 100 m of hight. 1,00 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,65 °C / 100 m of hight.

13. The speed of a thermal current depends on:

instability rate and air warming from the ground surface. uneven heating of cyclonic thermal convective clouds. time of day and season.

14. During summer in Central Europe, in the central part of a significant anticyclone we expect:

inversion fog, variable wind, night thunderstorms and strong thermics during a day. clear skies, strong winds, cold at night, warm at daytime and strong thermics. mostly sunny, light wind, high temperatures duding a day, weakening thermics.

15. Increasing distance between isobars means that in the given area the air velocity will be:

the distance between isobars tells nothing about the air velocity. faster. slower.

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

17. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Seven. Five.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

19. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased. increased.

20. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

21. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain.

22. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. not identical.

23. Direction south is reported by:

180° 360° 090°

24. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

60 km 50 km 45 km

25. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

Paris. London. Moscow.

26. Geographical meridian is:

a half of meridian circle. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a circle around the globe.

27. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

true air speed. ground speed. indicated air speed.

28. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

in rapid uncontrolable rotation. after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

29. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

water surface. electric wires. a parking.

30. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

31. The reserve parachute is used so that:

By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

32. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute.

33. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

34. Airport operations are:

all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area.

35. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight.

36. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every cross country flight. at every flight. at a flight outside the airport.

37. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically.

38. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

150 m 300 m 150 m except for ridge soaring.

39. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age.

40. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

nine months. five months. six months.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents.

43. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“

44. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. in the middle of chest bone. by the lower end of chest bone.

45. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.

46. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help.

47. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration.

48. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly.

49. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons.

50. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position.