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Test - PL A

1. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the air foil thickness and special aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the wing arrow and air foil thickness.

2. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil.

3. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase.

4. Induced drag:

arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference. arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft. arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft.

5. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag.

6. The optimal gliding ratio can be flown:

with two different angles of attack. with critical angle of attack. with just one angle of attack.

7. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

changes because effective bearing area is the same. changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change. does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change.

8. Lift is:

the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. an area resistance given by the angle of attack. a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force.

9. Frontal fog forms usually on:

II. type cold fronts. stationary fronts. worm fronts.

10. Wind is given by:

the direction towards what it blows and speed. the direction from which it blows and speed. speed.

11. What ground level weather is usually associated with a permanent area of high pressure over the mainland in winter?

Fog tendency and low St-type cloudiness. Ns cloudiness with permanent rain. Thunderstorms.

12. If a paraglider or powered paraglider pilot sees a Cumulonimbus cloud while flying, he should:

fly under the cloud in a safe vertical distance from its cloud base. land on a suitable landing field as soon as possible. fly around the storm area in a safe distance.

13. Cooling speed of rising air saturated with water vapor is less than of unsaturated air because:

water vapor absorbs heat radiated by air. water vapor is not cooled as fast as dry air. condensation releases heat.

14. The basic cause of cloud formation in the atmosphere is:

decrease of air temperature with height. achieving a state of saturation. achieving a state of saturation followed by water vapor condensation.

15. Increasing distance between isobars means that in the given area the air velocity will be:

slower. the distance between isobars tells nothing about the air velocity. faster.

16. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Seven. Five.

19. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

20. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

21. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope.

22. The globe is:

ideal sphere. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. a net of coordinate lines.

23. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain. accurate watch.

24. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

indicated air speed. true air speed. ground speed.

25. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. those with precise angles. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles.

26. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

200 km 20 km 50 km

27. The horizontal velocity is given:

in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in feet. in knots.

28. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

29. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

30. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

31. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a lonely tree. a forest road. dense forest.

32. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface.

33. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs.

34. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground.

35. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 125 (3800 m) FL 95 (2900 m) FL 85 (2600 m)

36. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in FL 125. in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map). in 1500 m AMSL.

37. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Yes. Only in clouds. No.

38. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

ADAC map. official CAA map. valid AIP or ICAO map.

39. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

restrict the other aircraft. be less then 150m. create a collision hazard.

40. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

42. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

43. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart.

44. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

We need to use another compress bandage. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. The tourniquet needs tightening.

45. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check.

46. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help. We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services.

47. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction.

48. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

his paragliding harness. the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape. into a stretcher tied straight branches.

49. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status.

50. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„ a position that the afflicted person wants to take. a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position).