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Test - PL A

1. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest.

2. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

In the middle of the glider. At the side parts of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed.

3. The main cause of the stall is always:

exceeding the critical angle of attack. decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider.

4. A paraglider stall occures when:

the pilot breaks too much. the speed system is pushed too fast. the glider overcomes the pilot when taking off.

5. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil.

6. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy. changes of the size of projected area of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy.

7. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing when flying in wind. is changing with weight changes. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same.

8. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease. the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases.

9. The basic cause of cloud formation in the atmosphere is:

achieving a state of saturation followed by water vapor condensation. decrease of air temperature with height. achieving a state of saturation.

10. The change of physical state water - water vapor is called:

condensation evaporation sublimation

11. During summer in Central Europe, in the central part of a significant anticyclone we expect:

inversion fog, variable wind, night thunderstorms and strong thermics during a day. mostly sunny, light wind, high temperatures duding a day, weakening thermics. clear skies, strong winds, cold at night, warm at daytime and strong thermics.

12. What do we mean by the term "clear thermic"?

Strong gusty wind in a coud free environment. Turbulence associated with a windshear. An ascending thermal current not topped by a cumulus cloud.

13. Dew point temperature is:

is the air temperature with determined relative humidity. the air temperature at the saturation status moment. the air temperature in given altitude.

14. Which types of clouds are typical for a warm front cloud system:

Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cb – cumulonimbus Sc – stratocumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cc – cirocumulus Ns – nimbostratus, As – altostratus, Cs – cirostratus

15. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of strong turbulence?

Nimbostratus Cirrocumulus Altocumulus lenticularis

16. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing.

17. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Three. Five.

19. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

21. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

22. Geographical meridian is:

a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a circle around the globe. a half of meridian circle.

23. Geographical North and South:

change location depending on annual periods. do not change location. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism.

24. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

not identical. identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole.

25. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to locate and identify several landmarks. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to focus on one landmark.

26. The horizontal velocity is given:

in knots. in feet. in km/h, MPH or knots (kts).

27. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

indicated air speed. true air speed. ground speed.

28. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind.

29. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

30. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

31. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing.

32. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind. with the wind from a side. against the wind.

33. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

34. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

from the right. from the left. against the sun.

35. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every cross country flight. at a flight outside the airport. at every flight.

36. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

six months. five months. nine months.

37. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left. You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left.

38. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in FL 125. in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map). in 1500 m AMSL.

39. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

be less then 150m. create a collision hazard. restrict the other aircraft.

40. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection.

44. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always as a priority on any wound or fracture. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures.

45. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

the deepest compressions. timely starting and continuity of compressions. the highest possible frequency of compressions.

46. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it.

47. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are. First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help. If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious.

48. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

anywhere between the wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart.

49. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the body in extended position. hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

50. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs.