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Test - PL A

1. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

thrust and weight, drag and lift. gravity force and lift plus drag. lift and drag.

2. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase.

3. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

4. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes of the size of projected area of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy.

5. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

decreases. increases. does not change.

6. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil.

7. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

stays the same. increases. decreases.

8. The lift on the aerofoil:

is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing.

9. Which of the following clouds can spread over several levels (according to hight levels of clouds)?

Cirrus Nimbostratus Altocumulus

10. The main cause of atmospheric convection is:

sufficient air heating on the earth's surface during unstable stratification. uneven heating of the earth's surface of different colors. the day and night temperature difference.

11. Mass storms occur:

mostly in the afternoon and evening in the hours of the highest ground temperatures. anytime. mostly during the night.

12. Dangerous storm phenomena are:

the density of the Cb cloud which consists of liquid and solid state of water. strong updrafts and hight of the Cb could. strong updrafts with maximums in the upper half of CB cloud, stong turbulence, strong downdrafts with maximums near the CB cloudbase, frosts, electric characteristics of the Cb cloud.

13. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

in summer at midday. in winter at midday. at noon.

14. Thermal turbulence originates:

in a hilly terrain. in uneven heating of the Earth surface. in air heated by the ground in unstable air conditions.

15. A prerequisite for the condensation of the saturated water vapor in the troposphere is the presence of condensation nuclei which are:

solid and liquid particles. solid particles. liquid particles.

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

17. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

18. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain.

19. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

20. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

21. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

22. The prime meridian is:

the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle.

23. The globe is:

a net of coordinate lines. ideal sphere. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles.

24. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

45 km 60 km 50 km

25. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the marine poles. the magnetic poles. the geological poles.

26. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation.

27. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute. in degrees.

28. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute.

29. For emergency landing You would prefer:

water. buildings. trees.

30. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers.

31. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy. weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself.

32. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. a lonely tree. dense forest.

33. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing.

34. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at cross country flights. with them at every flight. with them at flights outside the airport.

35. A pilot must always have:

a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.

36. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight. the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance.

37. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

These conditions must not be changed. This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision. The course must be kept but speed can be changed.

38. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 95 (2900 m) FL 85 (2600 m) FL 125 (3800 m)

39. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

create a collision hazard. restrict the other aircraft. be less then 150m.

40. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

by the lower end of chest bone. in the middle of chest bone. next to left nipple.

44. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.).

45. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss. gentle transportation to the place of professional help. fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions.

46. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter.

47. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The priority of an improvised transport is speed. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport.

48. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status.

49. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident.

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.