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Test - PL A

1. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

0.4 kg/m3 0.25 kg/m3 4 kg/m3

2. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

gravity force and lift plus drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift. lift and drag.

3. Larger part of lift is generated:

above the aerofoil, around 2/3. below the aerofoil, around 2/3. above 2/3 of the aerofoil, around 55%.

4. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

decreases. does not change. increases.

5. The resultant aerodynamic force consists of:

lift and drag. lift and weight. lift coefficient and weight.

6. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider. the weight and lift ratio. the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed.

7. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes of the size of projected area of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy.

8. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease.

9. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

drizzle. strong showers. persistent rainfall.

10. Dew point temperature is:

the air temperature in given altitude. the air temperature at the saturation status moment. is the air temperature with determined relative humidity.

11. The part of cyclone between the warm and cold fronts is called:

the front line. the warm sector. the ridge of higher pressure.

12. What type of precipitation can be expected on an active cold front?

Light persistent rain. Drizzle. Showers and thunderstorms.

13. The change of physical state ice - water vapor is called:

sublimation condensation evaporation

14. Characteristic typical for the troposphere is:

isothermal stratification. temperature drop with hight. rise of pressure with hight.

15. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

Sc, Ns Cu, Cb St, Cs

16. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

18. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

19. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

20. What does the term „spin” mean?

A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall.

21. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

22. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. time zone position. certain place name.

23. Direction south is reported by:

090° 360° 180°

24. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to focus on one landmark. to locate and identify several landmarks.

25. The horizontal velocity is given:

in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in feet. in knots.

26. Course is measured in degrees from north:

counterclockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. clockwise.

27. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

depending on the intensity of sunlight. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods.

28. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a lonely tree. a forest road. dense forest.

29. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

water surface. a parking. electric wires.

30. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift.

31. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly.

32. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

33. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight.

34. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight. The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety.

35. In G class airspace there is:

a request of permanent two way connection. a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL. no request of connection.

36. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight.

37. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

300 m 150 m except for ridge soaring. 150 m

38. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

8 km 1,5 km 5 km

39. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 125 (3800 m) FL 95 (2900 m) FL 85 (2600 m)

40. A light aircraft can be steered by:

a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid assessment on medical fitness or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a person authorized by the light aircraft operator in the presence of the pilot, or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum.

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

43. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the body in extended position.

44. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help.

45. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always as a priority on any wound or fracture.

46. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check. 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions.

47. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment. convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side.

48. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state.

49. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective.

50. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter.