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Test - PL A

1. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing with weight changes. is changing when flying in wind. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same.

2. The resultant aerodynamic force consists of:

lift coefficient and weight. lift and drag. lift and weight.

3. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil.

4. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag.

5. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts.

6. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag. lift and overpressure. lift, mass and drag.

7. Lift is:

a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force. the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. an area resistance given by the angle of attack.

8. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed. the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider. the weight and lift ratio.

9. If a paraglider or powered paraglider pilot sees a Cumulonimbus cloud while flying, he should:

fly under the cloud in a safe vertical distance from its cloud base. fly around the storm area in a safe distance. land on a suitable landing field as soon as possible.

10. What type of precipitation can be expected on an active cold front?

Light persistent rain. Showers and thunderstorms. Drizzle.

11. The part of cyclone between the warm and cold fronts is called:

the front line. the warm sector. the ridge of higher pressure.

12. Frontal fog forms usually on:

worm fronts. stationary fronts. II. type cold fronts.

13. A cold front progresses faster than a warm front, the warm sector at the ground level gradually narrows and the warm air in this region is forced up into the higher layers. This process is called:

cyclone filling. oclusion. cyclone extinction.

14. The beginning of thunder storm is characterized by:

frequent lightning. rain on the earth's surface. persistent ascending currents.

15. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Advection fog. Radiation fog. Frontal fog.

16. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

18. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

19. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

20. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

21. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

22. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic area. topographic situation. map projections.

23. The globe is:

a net of coordinate lines. ideal sphere. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles.

24. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to focus on one landmark. to locate and identify several landmarks.

25. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute.

26. 045 degrees is direction:

north west. north east. south west.

27. The prime meridian is:

a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0.

28. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

29. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines.

30. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field.

31. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

32. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK.

33. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow.

34. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the upper limit of the G class air space. the ground surface. a specified altitude.

35. Airport operations are:

all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport. all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area.

36. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight.

37. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

the airport altitude AMSL. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere. 0.

38. From a sport aircraft (SLZ) it is forbidden:

to drop anything or spray, except under certain conditions. to drop things between sunrise and sunset. to spray.

39. To recalculate a figure in meters into figure in feet we use the simplified formula:

(m x 3) : 10 (m : 10) x 3 (m x 3) + 10%

40. The minimum age of student for beginning of theoretical and practical paragliding training in the Czech Republic is:

15 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 16 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 14 years with the consent of his legal guardians.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

44. The telephone number of medical emergency service in the Czech Republic is:

158 155 150

45. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important).

46. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. We need to use another compress bandage. The tourniquet needs tightening.

47. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.).

48. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to wave by any object of red color. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N).

49. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body.

50. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.