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Test - PL A

1. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

Only for tail wind. Yes. No.

2. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

decrease of steering forces. significant rise of forces in steering lines. sudden increase of descent rate.

3. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

4. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span squared and wing surface. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span and air foil thickness.

5. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes of the size of projected area of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy.

6. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

0.4 kg/m3 0.25 kg/m3 4 kg/m3

7. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

8. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight.

9. The land breeze:

blows during a day and is weaker than the see breeze. blows during a day and is stronger than the see breeze. blows at night and is weaker than the see breeze.

10. Characteristic typical for the troposphere is:

rise of pressure with hight. isothermal stratification. temperature drop with hight.

11. In the air mass without cloudiness, the air temperature at the surface is 15 ° C and 1000 m higher the temperature is 13 ° C. This layer of air is:

unstable. conditionally unstable. stable.

12. Saturated adiabatic curve is showing the change in temperature with height of value:

0,60 °C / 100 m of hight. 1,00 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,65 °C / 100 m of hight.

13. The 10 m/s wind speed is:

33,3 km/h. 36 km/h. 30 km/h.

14. In the area of low pressure in the northern hemisphere the wind close to the ground is blowing:

counter clockwise. clockwise. strait into the middle of the low pressure in the whole area.

15. During summer in Central Europe, in the central part of a significant anticyclone we expect:

mostly sunny, light wind, high temperatures duding a day, weakening thermics. inversion fog, variable wind, night thunderstorms and strong thermics during a day. clear skies, strong winds, cold at night, warm at daytime and strong thermics.

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

17. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Five. Seven.

18. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

19. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse.

20. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air.

21. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

22. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground.

23. Magnetic course is measured:

from bearing indicator. from geographical north of local meridian. from prime meridian.

24. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Moscow. Paris.

25. Geographical North and South:

are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. do not change location. change location depending on annual periods.

26. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

alitude. declination. negative hight, so called dephtines.

27. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

depending on the intensity of sunlight. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods.

28. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly.

29. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field.

30. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

31. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

32. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers.

33. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a lonely tree. dense forest. a forest road.

34. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset. from sunset to sunrise. only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority.

35. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground.

36. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight.

37. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

70 degrees. 80 degrees. 60 degrees.

38. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security

39. What is it CTR?

Control zone of an airport. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden. Terminal controlled area.

40. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left. You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right.

41. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

43. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat.

44. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

should be used for taking care of any injury. are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease. should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds.

45. The helmet of the afflicted:

must never be taken off. should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting. should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck.

46. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority.

47. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case.

48. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„ a position that the afflicted person wants to take. a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position).

49. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“ „If using tourniquet, then properly.“

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute.