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Test - PL A

1. The lift coefficient is influenced the most by:

the speed of flow. the air foil thickness. the air foil curving.

2. Lift is:

the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. an area resistance given by the angle of attack. a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force.

3. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same. is changing with weight changes. is changing when flying in wind.

4. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive).

5. The angle of attack is:

the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow. the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line.

6. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

7. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts.

8. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

The lift is evenly distributed. At the side parts of the glider. In the middle of the glider.

9. Clouds classified as high level clouds constitute of:

ice crystals. hail. supercooled water droplets.

10. Among high level clouds are:

Cc – cirrocumulus, Cs – cirrostratus Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus St – stratus, Sc – stratocumulus

11. What are the other two conditions, besides forces causing air lift, necessary for the creation of a thunderstorm?

Unstable conditions and high air humidity. Unstable conditions and low air pressure. Stable conditions and high air pressure.

12. Which types of clouds are typical for a warm front cloud system:

Ns – nimbostratus, As – altostratus, Cs – cirostratus Sc – stratocumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cc – cirocumulus Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cb – cumulonimbus

13. The low pressure system - Cyclone - is the area:

of low atmospheric pressure with the minimum value on its bordes. of low atmospheric pressure with the minimum value in its middle. where the atmospheric pressure is decreasing outwards.

14. What weather conditions are expected in temperate latitudes over land in summer in the middle of a stationary area of high pressure?

Thunderstorms, clear air and strong winds. Weak winds, haze. Ns clouds.

15. The change of physical state water - water vapor is called:

evaporation sublimation condensation

16. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Seven. Three.

17. The take off control includes:

the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

18. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

19. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

20. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake.

22. The prime meridian is:

a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0.

23. 225 degrees is direction:

north west. south east. south west.

24. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain. accurate watch. accurate compass.

25. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. identical. not identical.

26. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

with the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left. against the wind.

27. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. clockwise. counterclockwise.

28. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences.

29. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

against the wind. with the wind. with the wind from a side.

30. After a tall tree landing:

you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK. you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.) you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed.

31. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

in rapid uncontrolable rotation. after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

32. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing.

33. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

a parking. electric wires. water surface.

34. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left. You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right.

35. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight according the local atmospheric pressure. the hight above the see level. the hight above the ground level.

36. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

No. Yes. Only in clouds.

37. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

70 degrees. 60 degrees. 80 degrees.

38. LAA regulation, which governs the rules of flying a paraglider in the Czech Republic is called:

PL - 2 ZL - 1 ZL - 3

39. Who is authorized to check a pilot's license or student document?

Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, Czech Police, Czech CAA inspector, a person authorized by an airport or property owner. Paragliding operations inspector and Paragliding technical inspector of LAA CR, a person authorized by the Ministry of Transport or the CAA of the CR, Czech Police. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, person authorized of Ministry of Transport, Czech Police or local municipal authority personnel.

40. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

300 m 150 m 150 m except for ridge soaring.

41. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing.

43. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger.

44. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions only.

45. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage. fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage. lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle.

46. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the body in extended position. hanging in a triangular bandage.

47. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

anywhere between the wound and heart. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound.

48. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons.

49. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious. First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help. Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are.

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute.