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Test - PL A

1. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients). total weight. the velocity of flow.

2. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

3. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force.

4. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

5. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

increases. decreases. stays the same.

6. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pushing the speed system. Pulling the steering. Releasing the steering.

7. How the speed system works?

It decreases the angle of attack by releasing the rear risers. It decreases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. Sometimes it deforms the aerofoil shape. It increases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers.

8. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

At the side parts of the glider. In the middle of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed.

9. The part of cyclone between the warm and cold fronts is called:

the warm sector. the ridge of higher pressure. the front line.

10. Dangerous storm phenomena are:

the density of the Cb cloud which consists of liquid and solid state of water. strong updrafts with maximums in the upper half of CB cloud, stong turbulence, strong downdrafts with maximums near the CB cloudbase, frosts, electric characteristics of the Cb cloud. strong updrafts and hight of the Cb could.

11. Low level cloud can be:

St – stratus Ci – cirrus Ac – altocumulus

12. The greatest concentration of condensation nuclei is:

above mountains. above oceans. near large urban areas (industrial areas).

13. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

drizzle. persistent rainfall. strong showers.

14. In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

Liquid into gas. Gas into liquid. Solid substance into gas.

15. What thunder storms move forward the fastest?

Orographic storms. Frontal storms. Mass storms.

16. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake.

18. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

19. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

21. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased. increased.

22. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. certain place name. time zone position.

23. Geographical meridian is:

a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a circle around the globe. a half of meridian circle.

24. 045 degrees is direction:

north west. north east. south west.

25. Magnetic course is measured:

from prime meridian. from geographical north of local meridian. from bearing indicator.

26. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. counterclockwise. clockwise.

27. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain. accurate compass.

28. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind.

29. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute.

30. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

31. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn.

32. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him.

33. For emergency landing You would prefer:

trees. water. buildings.

34. If two aircrafts are flying on lines facing each other or approximately such, each of them should give way by changing its course to the:

side which is more suitable for avoiding a crash. left. right.

35. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground.

36. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which received permission for landing approach. which is landing or in the final approach to the landing. which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices.

37. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations.

38. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

six months. nine months. five months.

39. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight according the local atmospheric pressure. the hight above the ground level. the hight above the see level.

40. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance.

41. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early.

42. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

43. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„ a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position). a position that the afflicted person wants to take.

44. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain.

45. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.

46. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond. if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years.

47. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.

48. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly. the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness.

49. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help. If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious. Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are.

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration.