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Test - PL A

1. The aircraft falls when:

the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed. the pilot makes too sharp turn. it gets over the critical angle of attack.

2. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is changing due to a change of trailing edge position. is changing because the wing banks in the same moment. is not changing.

3. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

negative pressure. no pressure. overpressure.

4. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the drag and the gravity force. the weight of the aircraft and lift. the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force.

5. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

6. The induced drag can be reduced by:

aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the wing arrow and air foil thickness. the air foil thickness and special

7. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the speed and drag ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio.

8. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag. lift and overpressure. lift, mass and drag.

9. Increasing distance between isobars means that in the given area the air velocity will be:

the distance between isobars tells nothing about the air velocity. faster. slower.

10. Low level cloud can be:

St – stratus Ci – cirrus Ac – altocumulus

11. Which of the following processes in the air layer may lead to the formation of cumulus and cumulonimbus cloudiness?

Stable air layers lifting on frontal boundary. Convection. Subsidence.

12. Which type of precipitation comes off water only containing clouds at mid-latitudes?

Intensive rain. Light rain with big drops. Drizzle.

13. Half of the weight of the earth's atmosphere is located in the bottom:

3 km 8 km 5 km

14. In the area of low pressure in the northern hemisphere the wind close to the ground is blowing:

clockwise. counter clockwise. strait into the middle of the low pressure in the whole area.

15. If a paraglider or powered paraglider pilot sees a Cumulonimbus cloud while flying, he should:

fly around the storm area in a safe distance. fly under the cloud in a safe vertical distance from its cloud base. land on a suitable landing field as soon as possible.

16. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

17. The take off control includes:

the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

18. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

19. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind.

20. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

21. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased.

22. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

alitude. declination. negative hight, so called dephtines.

23. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. time zone position. certain place name.

24. The horizontal velocity is given:

in feet. in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in knots.

25. Comparative navigation involves:

comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing the calculated times with the reality. comparing terrain with a map and vice versa.

26. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods. depending on the intensity of sunlight.

27. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

28. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I release the steering continuously.

29. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

30. For emergency landing You would prefer:

water. trees. buildings.

31. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind. with the wind from a side. against the wind.

32. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

water surface. electric wires. a parking.

33. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a lonely tree. a forest road. dense forest.

34. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

the airport altitude in standard atmosphere. the airport altitude AMSL. 0.

35. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

create a collision hazard. be less then 150m. restrict the other aircraft.

36. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud. at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground.

37. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

valid AIP or ICAO map. official CAA map. ADAC map.

38. In G class airspace there is:

no request of connection. a request of permanent two way connection. a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL.

39. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at every flight. with them at cross country flights. with them at flights outside the airport.

40. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered but cannot be left.

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage. put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage. lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle.

44. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body.

45. The helmet of the afflicted:

should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck. must never be taken off. should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting.

46. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N). to wave by any object of red color.

47. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions only.

48. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services.

49. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions. to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss. gentle transportation to the place of professional help.

50. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority.