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Test - PL A

1. When air flow is laminar:

there is no relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is a relative mix of streamlines.

2. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

total weight. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients). the velocity of flow.

3. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Releasing the steering. Pulling the steering. Pushing the speed system.

4. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the speed and drag ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio.

5. The lift on the aerofoil:

is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing.

6. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

does not change. decreases. increases.

7. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing when flying in wind. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same. is changing with weight changes.

8. The induced drag can be reduced by:

aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the air foil thickness and special the wing arrow and air foil thickness.

9. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

St, Cs Cu, Cb Sc, Ns

10. The part of cyclone between the warm and cold fronts is called:

the ridge of higher pressure. the warm sector. the front line.

11. Which of the following cloud types may reach up into the stratosphere?

Cumulus Cumulonimbus Cirrostratus

12. Precipitation zone of a warm front is:

mostly right after the front line and it is showers. before the front line and it is persistent rainfall. at the front line and it is short rainfall.

13. Which types of clouds are typical for a warm front cloud system:

Sc – stratocumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cc – cirocumulus Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cb – cumulonimbus Ns – nimbostratus, As – altostratus, Cs – cirostratus

14. Which type of precipitation comes off water only containing clouds at mid-latitudes?

Light rain with big drops. Intensive rain. Drizzle.

15. In the definition of standard atmosphere the pressure and temperature values at mean sea level are:

1013,25 hPa, 0°C 1013,25 hPa, +15°C 1015 hPa, +10°C

16. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

17. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

18. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge.

19. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

20. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

21. What does the term „spin” mean?

Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall.

22. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

ground speed. true air speed. indicated air speed.

23. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

depending on the intensity of sunlight. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods.

24. Course is measured in degrees from north:

counterclockwise. clockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west.

25. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

26. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. time zone position. certain place name.

27. The globe is:

ideal sphere. a net of coordinate lines. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles.

28. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences.

29. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare.

30. The reserve parachute is used so that:

By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

31. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK.

32. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

33. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull the steering fully. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

34. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

six months. five months. nine months.

35. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

No. Yes. Only in clouds.

36. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight. The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety.

37. Airport operations are:

all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area. all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport.

38. From a sport aircraft (SLZ) it is forbidden:

to drop anything or spray, except under certain conditions. to drop things between sunrise and sunset. to spray.

39. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a sport pilot and a PG instructor.

40. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. the upper limit of the G class air space. a specified altitude.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. The telephone number of medical emergency service in the Czech Republic is:

158 150 155

44. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease. should be used for taking care of any injury. should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds.

45. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

backward head tilt. stabilised position. forward head tilt.

46. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

timely starting and continuity of compressions. the highest possible frequency of compressions. the deepest compressions.

47. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the body in extended position.

48. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration.

49. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

into a stretcher tied straight branches. the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape. his paragliding harness.

50. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always as a priority on any wound or fracture. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger.