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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface.

2. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed. the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider. the weight and lift ratio.

3. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

overpressure. no pressure. negative pressure.

4. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase.

5. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

increases. does not change. decreases.

6. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy. changes of the size of projected area of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy.

7. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same. is changing when flying in wind. is changing with weight changes.

8. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag.

9. A prerequisite for the condensation of the saturated water vapor in the troposphere is the presence of condensation nuclei which are:

solid and liquid particles. solid particles. liquid particles.

10. What temperature stratification is favorable for the occurence of vertical motions in the troposphere?

indifferent instable stable

11. The valley wind is blowing:

across the valley up the mountain slopes. across the valley due to winds aloft. along the mountain valley axis at daytime up to the mountains (against the river stream).

12. Dangerous storm phenomena are:

the density of the Cb cloud which consists of liquid and solid state of water. strong updrafts and hight of the Cb could. strong updrafts with maximums in the upper half of CB cloud, stong turbulence, strong downdrafts with maximums near the CB cloudbase, frosts, electric characteristics of the Cb cloud.

13. Lentil shaped elongated clouds:

occur mainly in the tropics; in our latitudes they appear rarely in the spring at the sudden change in temperature. indicate strong wind at hight and wind gusts danger. especially in summer indicate coming of a dangerous occluded front.

14. Increasing distance between isobars means that in the given area the air velocity will be:

slower. faster. the distance between isobars tells nothing about the air velocity.

15. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

in summer at midday. in winter at midday. at noon.

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse.

17. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain.

18. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing.

19. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

20. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

22. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

perpendicularly to the wind from left. against the wind. with the wind.

23. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

20 km 50 km 200 km

24. The globe is:

ideal sphere. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. a net of coordinate lines.

25. 045 degrees is direction:

south west. north east. north west.

26. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground.

27. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

alitude. declination. negative hight, so called dephtines.

28. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface.

29. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud. in rapid uncontrolable rotation.

30. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

31. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position.

32. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

33. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. pull the second steering fully and then release both. release the steering continuously.

34. If two or more aircrafts heavier then air are approaching one airport with the intention to land and the avoidance rules do not apply, the priority of landing is as follows:

the slower aircraft gives way to the faster aircraft. the aircraft flying higher gives way to the lower flying aircraft. the aircraft flying on left gives way to the aircraft flying from right.

35. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority. in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset. from sunset to sunrise.

36. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age.

37. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the upper limit of the G class air space. a specified altitude. the ground surface.

38. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

create a collision hazard. be less then 150m. restrict the other aircraft.

39. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner.

40. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Yes. Only in clouds. No.

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter. they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot.

44. The best way of use of the „anti-shock” foil (thermal blanket) is:

The afflicted is tightly wraped into it including head, only face is uncovered. The afflicted is carefully covered with it. It is laid under the afflicted.

45. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease. should be used for taking care of any injury. should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds.

46. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the body in extended position. hanging in a triangular bandage.

47. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check.

48. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage.

49. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. the process should be as fast as possible. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation.

50. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery. the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move. we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest.