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Test - PL A

1. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes of the size of projected area of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy.

2. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

4 kg/m3 0.4 kg/m3 0.25 kg/m3

3. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

decreases. increases. stays the same.

4. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts.

5. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

6. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km.

7. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in the same direction. the flow of air particles in different directions. when the air particles are not moving.

8. A paraglider stall occures when:

the speed system is pushed too fast. the pilot breaks too much. the glider overcomes the pilot when taking off.

9. Which of the phenomena occurring on the II. kind cold front are particularly dangerous for low-flying aircraft?

High pressure and temperature drop. Drop of cloud base, sometimes even to the ground. Strong turbulence limited to the narrow space of vortex - the microburst, with axis approximately at the base of Cb - cumulonimbus cloud.

10. Which of the following types of cloud is considered middle level clouds in the temperate latitudes?

Ns, Ci As, Ac St, Sc

11. We talk about stable air mass if following applies:

There are favorable conditions for ascending currents formation. There is convection forming in the air. There are unfavorable conditions for ascending currents formation.

12. The main cause of atmospheric convection is:

sufficient air heating on the earth's surface during unstable stratification. uneven heating of the earth's surface of different colors. the day and night temperature difference.

13. What prevents the air flow from areas of high pressure directly into the area of low air pressure?

Friction on the earth's surface. The force caused by the pressure gradient. The Coriolis force.

14. Hazardous phenomena associated with a I. kind cold front are usually:

Only low level clouds of stratiform types. strong gusty surface wind. Cb - cumulonimbus clouds at the head of the front hidden in low stratiform clouds, turbulence and icing.

15. If a paraglider or powered paraglider pilot sees a Cumulonimbus cloud while flying, he should:

fly around the storm area in a safe distance. fly under the cloud in a safe vertical distance from its cloud base. land on a suitable landing field as soon as possible.

16. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

17. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Seven. Five.

19. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system.

20. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

21. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

22. Geographical North and South:

change location depending on annual periods. do not change location. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism.

23. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

24. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

200 km 50 km 20 km

25. The prime meridian is:

the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England.

26. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. those with precise angles.

27. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the geological poles. the marine poles. the magnetic poles.

28. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

electric wires. water surface. a parking.

29. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost.

30. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. pull the A risers or lines. wait until the glider stops itself.

31. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines.

32. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

dense forest. a forest road. a lonely tree.

33. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

34. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which is landing or in the final approach to the landing. which received permission for landing approach. which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices.

35. LAA regulation, which governs the rules of flying a paraglider in the Czech Republic is called:

ZL - 3 PL - 2 ZL - 1

36. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

150 m 300 m 150 m except for ridge soaring.

37. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility.

38. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight above the see level. the hight above the ground level. the hight according the local atmospheric pressure.

39. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator.

40. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every cross country flight. at every flight. at a flight outside the airport.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

42. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

43. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the body in extended position.

44. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage.

45. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter.

46. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture.

47. "Gasping breaths" mean:

individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction.

48. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

lay the afflicted in the stabilized position. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid. free the airway by backward head tilt.

49. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We start the resuscitation immediately. We promptly transport him to the professional medical service. First we try to free the airway.

50. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by standing with arms up in Y shape. by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape. by waving any object of bright color.