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Test - PL A

1. Lift is:

the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force. an area resistance given by the angle of attack.

2. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

no pressure. negative pressure. overpressure.

3. The chord is:

the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts. the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil.

4. The aircraft falls when:

it gets over the critical angle of attack. the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed. the pilot makes too sharp turn.

5. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

increases. decreases. stays the same.

6. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line.

7. Induced drag:

arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft. arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference. arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft.

8. The lift on the aerofoil:

is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil.

9. Dew point temperature is:

is the air temperature with determined relative humidity. the air temperature at the saturation status moment. the air temperature in given altitude.

10. Isobars are lines on surface weather maps that connect points:

of the same pressure recalculated to the sea level. of the same humidity. of the same temperature recalculated to the sea level.

11. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

Cu, Cb Sc, Ns St, Cs

12. There are massive and pronounced Cb - cumulonimbus clouds forming in the area of a athmospheric front. It is a typical manifestation of:

warm front. II. type cold front. warm ocluded front.

13. Wind is:

the mixing of air particles. the horizontal flow (moving) of the air. the vertical air movement.

14. The greatest concentration of condensation nuclei is:

near large urban areas (industrial areas). above oceans. above mountains.

15. The 10 m/s wind speed is:

33,3 km/h. 36 km/h. 30 km/h.

16. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system.

17. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

18. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

20. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

21. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

22. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to focus on one landmark. to locate and identify several landmarks.

23. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

not identical. identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole.

24. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

25. Geographical meridian is:

a half of meridian circle. a circle around the globe. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis.

26. The globe is:

ideal sphere. a net of coordinate lines. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles.

27. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

There is no difference. 2 hours. 1 hour.

28. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

29. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers.

30. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

31. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers.

32. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow.

33. After a tall tree landing:

you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.) you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed. you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK.

34. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which is landing or in the final approach to the landing. which received permission for landing approach. which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices.

35. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground. to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels.

36. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

70 degrees. 80 degrees. 60 degrees.

37. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight.

38. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. a specified altitude. the upper limit of the G class air space.

39. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered but cannot be left.

40. Who is authorized to check a pilot's license or student document?

Paragliding operations inspector and Paragliding technical inspector of LAA CR, a person authorized by the Ministry of Transport or the CAA of the CR, Czech Police. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, Czech Police, Czech CAA inspector, a person authorized by an airport or property owner. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, person authorized of Ministry of Transport, Czech Police or local municipal authority personnel.

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

43. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it. If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain. If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position).

44. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are. First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help. If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious.

45. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“

46. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat.

47. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

The tourniquet needs tightening. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. We need to use another compress bandage.

48. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage. put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage. lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle.

49. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage.

50. The telephone number of medical emergency service in the Czech Republic is:

158 155 150