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Test - PL A

1. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag.

2. The separation of streamlines is when:

the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil. the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape. turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow.

3. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

4. Larger part of lift is generated:

above the aerofoil, around 2/3. below the aerofoil, around 2/3. above 2/3 of the aerofoil, around 55%.

5. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the chord. always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil. always upwards from the aerofoil.

6. Lift is:

an area resistance given by the angle of attack. a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force. the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile.

7. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it will fly 1 km in 10 s. it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground.

8. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is changing because the wing banks in the same moment. is not changing. is changing due to a change of trailing edge position.

9. The basic cause of cloud formation in the atmosphere is:

decrease of air temperature with height. achieving a state of saturation followed by water vapor condensation. achieving a state of saturation.

10. What are the characteristic signs of the weather on the leeward side of the mountains during Fohn?

Few clouds, unusual increase of temperature, low humidity, often strong winds. Overcast, precipitation, good visibility. Variable cloudiness and occasional rain, moderate or no wind.

11. In the northern hemisphere by proceeding vertically from the ground, the wind direction is somewhat different from the direction measured at the ground and it turns:

right. left. It doesn’t turn.

12. What do we mean by the term "clear thermic"?

Strong gusty wind in a coud free environment. Turbulence associated with a windshear. An ascending thermal current not topped by a cumulus cloud.

13. In meteorology, storm is:

a phenomenon identical with the term "cold front”. a natural phenomenon accompanied by intensive rainfall and electrical discharges. the most significant manifestation of convection in the free atmosphere.

14. Dew point is:

the temperature to which air must be cooled to induce condensation. a place over which a cloud will form. the height of the zero isotherm.

15. The change of physical state water vapor - water is called:

solidification crystallization condensation

16. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

17. What does the term „spin” mean?

A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall.

18. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Five. Three.

20. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

21. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. always the same.

22. Geographical North and South:

change location depending on annual periods. do not change location. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism.

23. 045 degrees is direction:

north east. south west. north west.

24. 225 degrees is direction:

south west. north west. south east.

25. Comparative navigation involves:

comparing the calculated times with the reality. comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing terrain with a map and vice versa.

26. Magnetic course is measured:

from geographical north of local meridian. from bearing indicator. from prime meridian.

27. Direction south is reported by:

090° 180° 360°

28. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. using the reserve parachute. to execute a descending maneuvre.

29. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull the steering fully. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

30. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide.

31. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing.

32. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift.

33. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field.

34. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

150 m except for ridge soaring. 300 m 150 m

35. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR. always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR. by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”.

36. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at flights outside the airport. with them at cross country flights. with them at every flight.

37. A pilot must always have:

a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation. a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.

38. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight.

39. Airport operations are:

all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area. all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport.

40. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight.

41. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain. If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it. If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position).

44. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body.

45. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds. are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease. should be used for taking care of any injury.

46. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always as a priority on any wound or fracture. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger.

47. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“

48. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better.

49. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.).

50. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

by the lower end of chest bone. next to left nipple. in the middle of chest bone.