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Test - PL A

1. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Releasing the steering. Pulling the steering. Pushing the speed system.

2. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

parasitic drag and supportive drag. parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag.

3. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow.

4. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the speed and drag ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio. the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio.

5. In a normal steady flight:

there is overpressure on the upper surface and negative pressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is overpressure on the upper and lower surface of the wing. there is negative pressure on the upper surface and overpressure on the lower surface of the wing.

6. The chord is:

the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil. the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts.

7. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km.

8. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

lift and drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift. gravity force and lift plus drag.

9. The correct ICAO abbreviation of northwest wind is:

SE SW NW

10. Mass storms occur:

mostly in the afternoon and evening in the hours of the highest ground temperatures. anytime. mostly during the night.

11. Which of the following types of cloud is considered low level cloud?

As Ns St

12. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts. Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing. Persistent rainfall.

13. Among high level clouds are:

Cc – cirrocumulus, Cs – cirrostratus St – stratus, Sc – stratocumulus Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus

14. What temperature stratification is favorable for the occurence of vertical motions in the troposphere?

indifferent instable stable

15. Local isolated thunderstorms are mostly:

frontal air lift (warm front). mass storms. frontal air lift (cold front).

16. What does the term „spin” mean?

A spiral. Symmetric paragider stall. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall.

17. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Five. Seven.

19. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

20. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

21. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

22. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. counterclockwise. clockwise.

23. The globe is:

ideal sphere. a net of coordinate lines. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles.

24. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain place name. time zone position. certain geographical location.

25. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. 2 hours. There is no difference.

26. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. Experience of the pilot and his estimation.

27. The prime meridian is:

a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0.

28. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn.

29. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

30. If I stall the glider:

I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly.

31. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him.

32. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

water surface. a parking. electric wires.

33. After a tall tree landing:

you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed. you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK. you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.)

34. In G class airspace there is:

no request of connection. a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL. a request of permanent two way connection.

35. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility.

36. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age.

37. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in 1500 m AMSL. in FL 125. in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map).

38. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport.

39. The dangerous airspace (LKD) is is an area where flying is:

dangerous. restricted. prohibited.

40. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

0. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere. the airport altitude AMSL.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

44. "Gasping breaths" mean:

individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state.

45. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body. the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness.

46. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We promptly transport him to the professional medical service. We start the resuscitation immediately. First we try to free the airway.

47. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound.

48. The helmet of the afflicted:

must never be taken off. should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting. should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck.

49. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection.

50. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position). the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„ a position that the afflicted person wants to take.