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Test - PL A

1. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is not changing. is changing because the wing banks in the same moment. is changing due to a change of trailing edge position.

2. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

overpressure. no pressure. negative pressure.

3. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. its velocity is 6 m/s.

4. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end.

5. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

stays the same. increases. decreases.

6. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

changes because effective bearing area is the same. does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change. changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change.

7. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same. is changing when flying in wind. is changing with weight changes.

8. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force.

9. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

in summer at midday. in winter at midday. at noon.

10. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the greatest:

over the equatorial regions. over the poles. in the temperate zones.

11. What vertical temperature stratification is typical for advection fog?

Isothermy. Inversion. Drop of temperature with altitude.

12. Precipitation coming off St-stratus layer of cloud is mostly:

drizzle. hail. violent torrential rain.

13. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the lowest:

in temperate zones. above poles. above Equator areas.

14. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of strong turbulence?

Altocumulus lenticularis Nimbostratus Cirrocumulus

15. The air density of the atmosphere with altitude:

increases. doesn't change. decreases.

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Five. Seven.

19. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

20. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased.

21. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

22. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute. in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec.

23. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain place name. time zone position. certain geographical location.

24. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. north west. south west.

25. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

26. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Moscow. Paris.

27. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

60 km 50 km 45 km

28. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes.

29. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. release the steering continuously.

30. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident.

31. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

32. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing.

33. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

34. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Yes. No. Only in clouds.

35. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

restrict the other aircraft. create a collision hazard. be less then 150m.

36. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight.

37. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

official CAA map. ADAC map. valid AIP or ICAO map.

38. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m AMSL 300 m AGL 300 m STD

39. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every flight. at every cross country flight. at a flight outside the airport.

40. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

43. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

155 112 1210

44. The helmet of the afflicted:

should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting. should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck. must never be taken off.

45. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position. The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back.

46. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. by the lower end of chest bone. in the middle of chest bone.

47. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position). a position that the afflicted person wants to take. the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„

48. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case.

49. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss. gentle transportation to the place of professional help. fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions.

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute.