Check out how you stand with your knowledge to obtain a paragliding pilot's license.
Unsure or don't know the correct answer? Learn everything you need right in our online classroom.
Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. Surface load:

indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight. indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area.

2. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

no pressure. negative pressure. overpressure.

3. At the critical angle of attack:

the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly. the drag coefficient drops abruptly. the lift coefficient sharply increases.

4. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pushing the speed system. Pulling the steering. Releasing the steering.

5. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back. The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord.

6. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts.

7. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

increases. decreases. stays the same.

8. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end.

9. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

Sc, Ns St, Cs Cu, Cb

10. The main cause of atmospheric convection is:

the day and night temperature difference. uneven heating of the earth's surface of different colors. sufficient air heating on the earth's surface during unstable stratification.

11. Thermal turbulence originates:

in air heated by the ground in unstable air conditions. in a hilly terrain. in uneven heating of the Earth surface.

12. At the passing active II. kind cold front we encounter typical dangerous phenomena:

icing, persistent rainfall, impaired visibility. strong turbulence, severe icing, active thunderstorm activity, heavy showers, strong winds. low clouds, thick stratiform clouds and strong persistent rainfall.

13. What weather conditions are expected in temperate latitudes over land in summer in the middle of a stationary area of high pressure?

Weak winds, haze. Ns clouds. Thunderstorms, clear air and strong winds.

14. What will be the surface wind characteristics in the area where on the surface meteorological map there are isobars close together?

Strong wind blowing perpedicularly to the isobars. Strong wind blowing approximately along the isobars. Weak wind blowing along the isobars.

15. Humidity means:

snowing precipitation fall the amount of water vapor in the air

16. When entering a thermal current:

the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake.

17. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased. increased.

18. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

19. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

21. The take off control includes:

the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

22. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to locate and identify several landmarks. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to focus on one landmark.

23. Course is measured in degrees from north:

counterclockwise. clockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west.

24. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate compass. accurate watch. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

25. Time is reported:

in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec.

26. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain place name. time zone position. certain geographical location.

27. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

28. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. a lonely tree. dense forest.

29. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers.

30. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind.

31. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow.

32. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

33. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field.

34. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in 1500 m AMSL. in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map). in FL 125.

35. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

36. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”. always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR. always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR.

37. The paraglider canopy is damaged mostly by:

mice and other wild rodents. UV rays, mechanical abrasion and humidity. storage in dark and dry rooms.

38. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight. the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance.

39. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

60 degrees. 80 degrees. 70 degrees.

40. If two aircrafts are flying on lines facing each other or approximately such, each of them should give way by changing its course to the:

left. right. side which is more suitable for avoiding a crash.

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing.

43. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid.

44. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by standing with arms up in Y shape. by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape. by waving any object of bright color.

45. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter. they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons.

46. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration.

47. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

his paragliding harness. the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape. into a stretcher tied straight branches.

48. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position. The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage.

49. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

50. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

the highest possible frequency of compressions. the deepest compressions. timely starting and continuity of compressions.