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Test - PL A

1. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the speed and drag ratio. the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio.

2. The main cause of the stall is always:

decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider. exceeding the critical angle of attack.

3. Larger part of lift is generated:

below the aerofoil, around 2/3. above the aerofoil, around 2/3. above 2/3 of the aerofoil, around 55%.

4. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

5. The induced drag can be reduced by:

aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the air foil thickness and special the wing arrow and air foil thickness.

6. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force. the weight of the aircraft and lift. the drag and the gravity force.

7. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the chord. always upwards from the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil.

8. The aircraft falls when:

it gets over the critical angle of attack. the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed. the pilot makes too sharp turn.

9. Which of the following types of cloud is considered middle level clouds in the temperate latitudes?

St, Sc As, Ac Ns, Ci

10. In the definition of standard atmosphere the pressure and temperature values at mean sea level are:

1015 hPa, +10°C 1013,25 hPa, 0°C 1013,25 hPa, +15°C

11. Thermal turbulence originates:

in uneven heating of the Earth surface. in a hilly terrain. in air heated by the ground in unstable air conditions.

12. On the northern hemisphere, the height of the troposphere, depending on latitude:

increases from south to north. decreases from south to north. is the same during the whole year.

13. With increasing height, atmospheric pressure:

does not change. decreases and in the hight of 5.5 km is a half of its value at the see level. increases and in the hight of 5.5 km is double of its value at the see level.

14. Mass storms occur:

mostly during the night. mostly in the afternoon and evening in the hours of the highest ground temperatures. anytime.

15. How the air masses move in a warm front?

Cold air shifts above the warm air mass. Warm air shifts above the cold air mass. Warm air shifts below the cold air mass.

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

17. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Seven. Five.

19. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system.

20. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

21. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased.

22. Geographical meridian is:

a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a half of meridian circle. a circle around the globe.

23. Direction south is reported by:

090° 180° 360°

24. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

those with precise angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles.

25. The horizontal velocity is given:

in feet. in knots. in km/h, MPH or knots (kts).

26. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to focus on one landmark. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to locate and identify several landmarks.

27. 045 degrees is direction:

south west. north west. north east.

28. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. using the reserve parachute.

29. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow.

30. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

under a Cumulonimbus cloud. in rapid uncontrolable rotation. after being blown behind a mountain ridge.

31. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

a parking. electric wires. water surface.

32. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the A risers or lines. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. wait until the glider stops itself.

33. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

dense forest. a lonely tree. a forest road.

34. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment

35. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

outside the clouds and in visibility of ground. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud. at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically.

36. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety. The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight.

37. In G class airspace there is:

a request of permanent two way connection. no request of connection. a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL.

38. If two aircrafts are flying on lines facing each other or approximately such, each of them should give way by changing its course to the:

left. side which is more suitable for avoiding a crash. right.

39. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered but cannot be left. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority.

40. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”. always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR. always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. The tourniquet needs tightening. We need to use another compress bandage.

44. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.

45. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions.

46. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain. If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it. If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position).

47. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body.

48. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

lay the afflicted in the stabilized position. free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid.

49. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. in the middle of chest bone. by the lower end of chest bone.

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration.