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Test - PL A

1. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord. If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back.

2. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

gravity force and lift plus drag. lift and drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift.

3. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

stays the same. decreases. increases.

4. The chord is:

the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts. the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil.

5. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

negative pressure. overpressure. no pressure.

6. At the critical angle of attack:

the drag coefficient drops abruptly. the lift coefficient sharply increases. the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly.

7. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change. changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change. changes because effective bearing area is the same.

8. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive).

9. On the northern hemisphere, the height of the troposphere, depending on latitude:

increases from south to north. decreases from south to north. is the same during the whole year.

10. What will be the surface wind characteristics in the area where on the surface meteorological map there are isobars close together?

Strong wind blowing approximately along the isobars. Weak wind blowing along the isobars. Strong wind blowing perpedicularly to the isobars.

11. A cold front progresses faster than a warm front, the warm sector at the ground level gradually narrows and the warm air in this region is forced up into the higher layers. This process is called:

cyclone filling. cyclone extinction. oclusion.

12. Precipitation zone of a warm front is:

mostly right after the front line and it is showers. before the front line and it is persistent rainfall. at the front line and it is short rainfall.

13. The change of physical state water - water vapor is called:

condensation evaporation sublimation

14. The boundary between troposphere and stratosphere is called:

atmosphere ionosphere tropopause

15. With increasing altitude the wind speed usually:

decreases. increases. increases in the summer and decreases in the winter.

16. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

18. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

19. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.

20. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

22. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

indicated air speed. ground speed. true air speed.

23. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the magnetic poles. the marine poles. the geological poles.

24. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. those with precise angles.

25. Magnetic course is measured:

from geographical north of local meridian. from prime meridian. from bearing indicator.

26. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. 2 hours. There is no difference.

27. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. south west. north west.

28. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident.

29. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide.

30. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. pull the second steering fully and then release both. release the steering continuously.

31. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

dense forest. a forest road. a lonely tree.

32. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

in rapid uncontrolable rotation. after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

33. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

34. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground.

35. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

70 degrees. 60 degrees. 80 degrees.

36. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

against the sun. from the left. from the right.

37. What is it CTR?

Control zone of an airport. Terminal controlled area. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden.

38. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN.

39. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

40. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain.

44. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The priority of an improvised transport is speed. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport.

45. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status.

46. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

by the lower end of chest bone. in the middle of chest bone. next to left nipple.

47. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction.

48. The best way of use of the „anti-shock” foil (thermal blanket) is:

The afflicted is carefully covered with it. The afflicted is tightly wraped into it including head, only face is uncovered. It is laid under the afflicted.

49. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons.

50. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective.