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Test - PL A

1. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

At the side parts of the glider. In the middle of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed.

2. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

decreases. does not change. increases.

3. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in the same direction. when the air particles are not moving. the flow of air particles in different directions.

4. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag. parasitic drag and supportive drag.

5. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force. the drag and the gravity force. the weight of the aircraft and lift.

6. The lift on the aerofoil:

is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil.

7. Larger part of lift is generated:

below the aerofoil, around 2/3. above 2/3 of the aerofoil, around 55%. above the aerofoil, around 2/3.

8. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio. the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the speed and drag ratio.

9. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

St, Cs Cu, Cb Sc, Ns

10. Clouds classified as high level clouds constitute of:

hail. ice crystals. supercooled water droplets.

11. The part of cyclone between the warm and cold fronts is called:

the warm sector. the front line. the ridge of higher pressure.

12. Which of the layers of Earth's atmosphere is characterized by vertical movements?

Tropopause. Troposphere. Stratosphere.

13. The change of physical state ice - water vapor is called:

condensation sublimation evaporation

14. Dew point temperature is:

the air temperature in given altitude. is the air temperature with determined relative humidity. the air temperature at the saturation status moment.

15. Which of the following cloud types may reach up into the stratosphere?

Cumulus Cirrostratus Cumulonimbus

16. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

17. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Three. Five.

18. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge.

19. What does the term „spin” mean?

A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall.

20. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

21. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

22. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute. in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec.

23. Comparative navigation involves:

comparing the calculated times with the reality. comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing terrain with a map and vice versa.

24. The globe is:

ideal sphere. a net of coordinate lines. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles.

25. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

measurements on a map. the compass needle free of any interferences. the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south.

26. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain place name. time zone position. certain geographical location.

27. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

with the wind. against the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left.

28. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide.

29. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind. against the wind. with the wind from a side.

30. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight.

31. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

electric wires. a parking. water surface.

32. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK.

33. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

34. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered but cannot be left. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority.

35. What is it CTR?

Terminal controlled area. Control zone of an airport. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden.

36. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a sport pilot and a PG instructor.

37. If two or more aircrafts heavier then air are approaching one airport with the intention to land and the avoidance rules do not apply, the priority of landing is as follows:

the aircraft flying on left gives way to the aircraft flying from right. the aircraft flying higher gives way to the lower flying aircraft. the slower aircraft gives way to the faster aircraft.

38. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

39. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”. always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR. always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR.

40. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every flight. at a flight outside the airport. at every cross country flight.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

43. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the body in extended position.

44. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.

45. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen.

46. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape. by waving any object of bright color. by standing with arms up in Y shape.

47. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid. free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the stabilized position.

48. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat.

49. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute.

50. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions.