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Test - PL A

1. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

2. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

4 kg/m3 0.4 kg/m3 0.25 kg/m3

3. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag. parasitic drag and supportive drag.

4. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface.

5. The separation of streamlines is when:

turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow. the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil. the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape.

6. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

increases. decreases. stays the same.

7. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts.

8. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing when flying in wind. is changing with weight changes. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same.

9. What temperature stratification is favorable for the occurence of vertical motions in the troposphere?

indifferent instable stable

10. Anabatic flow is:

a gusty mountain breeze. the wind coming up the mountain slopes due to thermic. the land breeze.

11. Characteristic typical for the troposphere is:

rise of pressure with hight. isothermal stratification. temperature drop with hight.

12. The air density of the atmosphere with altitude:

doesn't change. decreases. increases.

13. The part of cyclone between the warm and cold fronts is called:

the ridge of higher pressure. the warm sector. the front line.

14. Clouds classified as high level clouds constitute of:

ice crystals. supercooled water droplets. hail.

15. What are the other two conditions, besides forces causing air lift, necessary for the creation of a thunderstorm?

Unstable conditions and high air humidity. Stable conditions and high air pressure. Unstable conditions and low air pressure.

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

17. What does the term „spin” mean?

Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

19. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

20. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Three. Five.

21. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

22. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

23. Magnetic course is measured:

from bearing indicator. from geographical north of local meridian. from prime meridian.

24. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

ground speed. true air speed. indicated air speed.

25. Geographical meridian is:

a half of meridian circle. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a circle around the globe.

26. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in degrees.

27. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. not identical. identical.

28. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind from a side. with the wind. against the wind.

29. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

30. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

31. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a lonely tree. dense forest. a forest road.

32. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field.

33. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers.

34. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right. You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left.

35. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. a specified altitude. the upper limit of the G class air space.

36. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

the airport altitude AMSL. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere. 0.

37. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset. only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority. from sunset to sunrise.

38. What is it CTR?

Terminal controlled area. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden. Control zone of an airport.

39. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

80 degrees. 70 degrees. 60 degrees.

40. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a sport pilot and a PG instructor. a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training.

41. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position). the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„ a position that the afflicted person wants to take.

44. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet.

45. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always as a priority on any wound or fracture. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger.

46. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. The priority of an improvised transport is speed. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance.

47. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help. We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance.

48. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the body in extended position. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage.

49. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions.

50. "Gasping breaths" mean:

individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state.