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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. When air flow is laminar:

there is a relative mix of streamlines. there is no relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow.

2. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force.

3. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground. it will fly 1 km in 10 s. it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind.

4. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

0.4 kg/m3 4 kg/m3 0.25 kg/m3

5. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

does not change. decreases. increases.

6. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

decrease of steering forces. significant rise of forces in steering lines. sudden increase of descent rate.

7. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end.

8. Surface load:

indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight.

9. What vertical temperature stratification is typical for advection fog?

Drop of temperature with altitude. Inversion. Isothermy.

10. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing. Persistent rainfall. Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts.

11. The correct ICAO abbreviation of northwest wind is:

SW NW SE

12. Local isolated thunderstorms are mostly:

mass storms. frontal air lift (warm front). frontal air lift (cold front).

13. Saturated adiabatic curve is showing the change in temperature with height of value:

0,60 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,65 °C / 100 m of hight. 1,00 °C / 100 m of hight.

14. In the area of high pressure in the northern hemisphere the wind close to the ground is blowing:

counter clockwise. clockwise. strait out from the middle of high pressure in the whole area.

15. The form of precipitation falling out of vertically developed cloud type Cb - cumulonimbus is mostly:

light rain. drizzle. rain and hail.

16. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

17. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

18. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers.

19. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

20. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air.

21. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

22. The prime meridian is:

a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0.

23. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods. depending on the intensity of sunlight.

24. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. There is no difference. 1 hour.

25. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

against the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left. with the wind.

26. Direction south is reported by:

180° 090° 360°

27. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 2 hours. 1 hour.

28. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

29. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines.

30. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field.

31. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers.

32. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

electric wires. water surface. a parking.

33. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the A risers or lines. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. wait until the glider stops itself.

34. The dangerous airspace (LKD) is is an area where flying is:

restricted. prohibited. dangerous.

35. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority. from sunset to sunrise. in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset.

36. Who is authorized to check a pilot's license or student document?

Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, Czech Police, Czech CAA inspector, a person authorized by an airport or property owner. Paragliding operations inspector and Paragliding technical inspector of LAA CR, a person authorized by the Ministry of Transport or the CAA of the CR, Czech Police. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, person authorized of Ministry of Transport, Czech Police or local municipal authority personnel.

37. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

five months. six months. nine months.

38. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

39. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

be less then 150m. create a collision hazard. restrict the other aircraft.

40. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

lay the afflicted in the stabilized position. free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid.

44. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

45. The telephone number of medical emergency service in the Czech Republic is:

155 158 150

46. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side. convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment.

47. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always as a priority on any wound or fracture. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures.

48. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.

49. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position). a position that the afflicted person wants to take. the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„

50. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

stabilised position. forward head tilt. backward head tilt.