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Test - PL A

1. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km.

2. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed. the weight and lift ratio. the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider.

3. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

changes because effective bearing area is the same. does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change. changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change.

4. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord. An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back. If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position.

5. The lift on the aerofoil:

is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil.

6. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase.

7. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

The lift is evenly distributed. In the middle of the glider. At the side parts of the glider.

8. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

9. In the air mass without cloudiness, the air temperature at the surface is 15 ° C and 1000 m higher the temperature is 13 ° C. This layer of air is:

conditionally unstable. stable. unstable.

10. On the northern hemisphere, the height of the troposphere, depending on latitude:

is the same during the whole year. decreases from south to north. increases from south to north.

11. The speed of a thermal current depends on:

uneven heating of cyclonic thermal convective clouds. instability rate and air warming from the ground surface. time of day and season.

12. The low pressure system - Cyclone - is the area:

of low atmospheric pressure with the minimum value on its bordes. where the atmospheric pressure is decreasing outwards. of low atmospheric pressure with the minimum value in its middle.

13. Which types of clouds are typical for a warm front cloud system:

Ns – nimbostratus, As – altostratus, Cs – cirostratus Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cb – cumulonimbus Sc – stratocumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cc – cirocumulus

14. An aircraft is flying at a very warm day across the Alps. The weather is good and there is an anticyclone in the area. The aircraft is flying by a mountain at the hight of its summit. What value is the altimeter showing compared to the summit altitude?

A higher height than the summit altitude. The same height as the summit altitude. A lower height than the summit altitude.

15. A prerequisite for the condensation of the saturated water vapor in the troposphere is the presence of condensation nuclei which are:

liquid particles. solid particles. solid and liquid particles.

16. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

17. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same.

18. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers.

19. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

20. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

21. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Five. Seven.

22. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

perpendicularly to the wind from left. with the wind. against the wind.

23. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

indicated air speed. ground speed. true air speed.

24. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Paris. Moscow.

25. Comparative navigation involves:

comparing terrain with a map and vice versa. comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing the calculated times with the reality.

26. Geographical meridian is:

a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a half of meridian circle. a circle around the globe.

27. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

depending on the intensity of sunlight. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods.

28. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident.

29. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

electric wires. water surface. a parking.

30. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself. pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy.

31. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field.

32. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I release the steering continuously.

33. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

34. The minimum age of student for beginning of theoretical and practical paragliding training in the Czech Republic is:

16 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 14 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 15 years with the consent of his legal guardians.

35. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN.

36. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

0. the airport altitude AMSL. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere.

37. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment

38. Except for takeoff or landing, or except by permit issued by the Aviation Authority, a VFR flight must be conducted over the congested areas or gathering of people in the open air at a height that may not be less than:

150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft.

39. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the head of air traffic. the aircraft commander (pilot). the operator.

40. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right. You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

43. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration.

44. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

45. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage.

46. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority.

47. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

into a stretcher tied straight branches. the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape. his paragliding harness.

48. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“

49. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss. gentle transportation to the place of professional help. fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions.

50. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. We need to use another compress bandage. The tourniquet needs tightening.