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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. When air flow is laminar:

there is no relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is a relative mix of streamlines.

2. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

0.4 kg/m3 0.25 kg/m3 4 kg/m3

3. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

thrust and weight, drag and lift. gravity force and lift plus drag. lift and drag.

4. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pushing the speed system. Pulling the steering. Releasing the steering.

5. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

negative pressure. no pressure. overpressure.

6. Larger part of lift is generated:

below the aerofoil, around 2/3. above 2/3 of the aerofoil, around 55%. above the aerofoil, around 2/3.

7. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing. the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing.

8. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive).

9. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

strong showers. drizzle. persistent rainfall.

10. What prevents the air flow from areas of high pressure directly into the area of low air pressure?

The Coriolis force. The force caused by the pressure gradient. Friction on the earth's surface.

11. With increasing height, atmospheric pressure:

decreases and in the hight of 5.5 km is a half of its value at the see level. does not change. increases and in the hight of 5.5 km is double of its value at the see level.

12. How is relative humidity of air affected by changes in the quantity of water vapor contained in it?

It is not affected by water vapour amount changes. It increases with increasing amounts of water vapor. It is affected only by temperature.

13. What do we mean by the term "clear thermic"?

An ascending thermal current not topped by a cumulus cloud. Strong gusty wind in a coud free environment. Turbulence associated with a windshear.

14. What vertical temperature stratification is typical for advection fog?

Isothermy. Inversion. Drop of temperature with altitude.

15. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Persistent rainfall. Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing. Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts.

16. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

19. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

20. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

21. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

22. The globe is:

a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. ideal sphere. a net of coordinate lines.

23. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

against the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left. with the wind.

24. Magnetic course is measured:

from prime meridian. from bearing indicator. from geographical north of local meridian.

25. 045 degrees is direction:

north east. north west. south west.

26. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

27. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the marine poles. the magnetic poles. the geological poles.

28. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the A risers or lines. wait until the glider stops itself. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers.

29. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing.

30. For emergency landing You would prefer:

water. buildings. trees.

31. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

32. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

33. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

dense forest. a forest road. a lonely tree.

34. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

35. LAA regulation, which governs the rules of flying a paraglider in the Czech Republic is called:

ZL - 3 PL - 2 ZL - 1

36. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map). in FL 125. in 1500 m AMSL.

37. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight.

38. What is it CTR?

Control zone of an airport. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden. Terminal controlled area.

39. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

These conditions must not be changed. This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision. The course must be kept but speed can be changed.

40. Airport operations are:

all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport. all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing.

42. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents.

43. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage.

44. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery. the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move. we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest.

45. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. We need to use another compress bandage. The tourniquet needs tightening.

46. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services.

47. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to wave by any object of red color. to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N).

48. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

49. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection.

50. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid.