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Test - PL A

1. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease.

2. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

3. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease.

4. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. its velocity is 6 m/s.

5. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

increases. decreases. does not change.

6. The separation of streamlines is when:

the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape. turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow. the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil.

7. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

0.4 kg/m3 4 kg/m3 0.25 kg/m3

8. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span squared and wing surface. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span and air foil thickness.

9. In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

Gas into liquid. Solid substance into gas. Liquid into gas.

10. Stationary front is the one that:

is moving only clockwise. is moving in leaps. is not moving or moves very slowly.

11. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

St, Cs Sc, Ns Cu, Cb

12. Which of the following types of cloud is considered middle level clouds in the temperate latitudes?

Ns, Ci As, Ac St, Sc

13. Anabatic flow is:

a gusty mountain breeze. the wind coming up the mountain slopes due to thermic. the land breeze.

14. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Advection fog. Frontal fog. Radiation fog.

15. The part of cyclone between the warm and cold fronts is called:

the front line. the ridge of higher pressure. the warm sector.

16. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

17. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Five. Seven.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

19. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

20. The take off control includes:

the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

21. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

22. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

measurements on a map. the compass needle free of any interferences. the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south.

23. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

24. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

45 km 60 km 50 km

25. The prime meridian is:

the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle.

26. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

ground speed. true air speed. indicated air speed.

27. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. counterclockwise. clockwise.

28. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

29. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly.

30. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field.

31. For emergency landing You would prefer:

water. buildings. trees.

32. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow.

33. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

water surface. electric wires. a parking.

34. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. a specified altitude. the upper limit of the G class air space.

35. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a sport pilot and a PG instructor. a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training.

36. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

from sunset to sunrise. only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority. in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset.

37. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone

38. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

39. TMA (Terminal Control Area)

cannot be flown under or over. can be flown under. can be flown under only with a two way radio communication with AFIS.

40. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at cross country flights. with them at every flight. with them at flights outside the airport.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

The tourniquet needs tightening. We need to use another compress bandage. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up.

44. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. always as a priority on any wound or fracture.

45. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body.

46. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

47. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat.

48. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

a priority first aid objective. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. necessary in case of open fracture.

49. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help. We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services.

50. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain.