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Test - PL A

1. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

decrease of steering forces. sudden increase of descent rate. significant rise of forces in steering lines.

2. Larger part of lift is generated:

above 2/3 of the aerofoil, around 55%. below the aerofoil, around 2/3. above the aerofoil, around 2/3.

3. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

4. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed. the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider. the weight and lift ratio.

5. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag.

6. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is not changing. is changing due to a change of trailing edge position. is changing because the wing banks in the same moment.

7. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing with weight changes. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same. is changing when flying in wind.

8. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease.

9. Which of the following types of cloud is considered middle level clouds in the temperate latitudes?

St, Sc As, Ac Ns, Ci

10. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

persistent rainfall. drizzle. strong showers.

11. A certain volume of moist but unsaturated air rises. Which of the following changes?

Mixing ratio. Relative humidity. Absolute humidity.

12. The basic cause of mechanical turbulence is:

the air mass stratification. the air mass humidity and temperature. wind and configuration of terrain.

13. The decrease of temperature with altitude in a standard atmosphere definition - vertical temperature gradient - has a value of:

0,6° C / 100 m. 1,0° C / 100 m. 0,65° C / 100 m.

14. The air mass is called unstable if there are:

stratified clouds in it. convective vertical motions in it. inversions in it.

15. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

at noon. in summer at midday. in winter at midday.

16. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

17. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse.

19. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

20. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

21. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

22. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

not identical. identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole.

23. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

ground speed. true air speed. indicated air speed.

24. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

25. The prime meridian is:

the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England.

26. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

negative hight, so called dephtines. declination. alitude.

27. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. the compass needle free of any interferences. measurements on a map.

28. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly.

29. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway.

30. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

31. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. in rapid uncontrolable rotation. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

32. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field.

33. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket and a flare.

34. TMA (Terminal Control Area)

can be flown under. can be flown under only with a two way radio communication with AFIS. cannot be flown under or over.

35. If two or more aircrafts heavier then air are approaching one airport with the intention to land and the avoidance rules do not apply, the priority of landing is as follows:

the aircraft flying on left gives way to the aircraft flying from right. the slower aircraft gives way to the faster aircraft. the aircraft flying higher gives way to the lower flying aircraft.

36. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

from the left. from the right. against the sun.

37. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

38. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at cross country flights. with them at every flight. with them at flights outside the airport.

39. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment

40. A pilot must always have:

a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation. a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

42. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

43. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The priority of an improvised transport is speed.

44. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage.

45. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help. We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance.

46. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot.

47. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body.

48. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are. If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious. First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help.

49. "Gasping breaths" mean:

individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state.

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration.