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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. How the speed system works?

It increases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. It decreases the angle of attack by releasing the rear risers. It decreases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. Sometimes it deforms the aerofoil shape.

2. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the air foil thickness and special aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the wing arrow and air foil thickness.

3. In a normal steady flight:

there is overpressure on the upper and lower surface of the wing. there is negative pressure on the upper surface and overpressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is overpressure on the upper surface and negative pressure on the lower surface of the wing.

4. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change. changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change. changes because effective bearing area is the same.

5. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil.

6. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground. it will fly 1 km in 10 s. it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind.

7. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

decreases. stays the same. increases.

8. Surface load:

indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area.

9. In our latitudes a vertically developed Cb cloud can reaches the height of:

4 km up to 15 km, or rarely even more. 1 km

10. Anabatic flow is:

the land breeze. a gusty mountain breeze. the wind coming up the mountain slopes due to thermic.

11. The change of physical state ice - water vapor is called:

evaporation sublimation condensation

12. Humidity means:

precipitation fall snowing the amount of water vapor in the air

13. Isobars are lines on surface weather maps that connect points:

of the same pressure recalculated to the sea level. of the same temperature recalculated to the sea level. of the same humidity.

14. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

Cu, Cb Sc, Ns St, Cs

15. Dangerous storm phenomena are:

strong updrafts and hight of the Cb could. strong updrafts with maximums in the upper half of CB cloud, stong turbulence, strong downdrafts with maximums near the CB cloudbase, frosts, electric characteristics of the Cb cloud. the density of the Cb cloud which consists of liquid and solid state of water.

16. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight.

17. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope.

18. Spiral is performed by:

weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

19. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

20. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain.

21. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

22. Geographical North and South:

are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. change location depending on annual periods. do not change location.

23. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. north west. south west.

24. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

perpendicularly to the wind from left. against the wind. with the wind.

25. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain. accurate compass.

26. The globe is:

a net of coordinate lines. ideal sphere. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles.

27. Magnetic course is measured:

from geographical north of local meridian. from bearing indicator. from prime meridian.

28. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing.

29. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

30. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

31. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

32. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket and a flare.

33. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself. pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy. weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci

34. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight.

35. The dangerous airspace (LKD) is is an area where flying is:

restricted. dangerous. prohibited.

36. The paraglider canopy is damaged mostly by:

UV rays, mechanical abrasion and humidity. storage in dark and dry rooms. mice and other wild rodents.

37. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which received permission for landing approach. which is landing or in the final approach to the landing. which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices.

38. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Only in clouds. Yes. No.

39. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age.

40. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority.

44. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs.

45. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.).

46. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident.

47. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always as a priority on any wound or fracture. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures.

48. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

The tourniquet needs tightening. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. We need to use another compress bandage.

49. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions only.

50. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state.