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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow.

2. Lift is:

a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force. the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. an area resistance given by the angle of attack.

3. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

4. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

the velocity of flow. total weight. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients).

5. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing when flying in wind. is changing with weight changes. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same.

6. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

7. The lift coefficient is influenced the most by:

the speed of flow. the air foil thickness. the air foil curving.

8. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts.

9. In troposphere, at vertical rise of 100 m the pressure drop:

is the same in all altitudes. is lower in higher altitudes then in lower altitudes. is higher in higher altitudes then in lower altitudes.

10. Which of the layers of Earth's atmosphere is characterized by vertical movements?

Troposphere. Stratosphere. Tropopause.

11. At what altitude the barometric pressure reaches about a half the pressure to the mean sea level?

5500 m MSL 7000 m MSL 3000 m MSL

12. What weather conditions are expected in temperate latitudes over land in summer in the middle of a stationary area of high pressure?

Thunderstorms, clear air and strong winds. Weak winds, haze. Ns clouds.

13. Which of the phenomena occurring on the II. kind cold front are particularly dangerous for low-flying aircraft?

Drop of cloud base, sometimes even to the ground. Strong turbulence limited to the narrow space of vortex - the microburst, with axis approximately at the base of Cb - cumulonimbus cloud. High pressure and temperature drop.

14. With increasing height, atmospheric pressure:

does not change. increases and in the hight of 5.5 km is double of its value at the see level. decreases and in the hight of 5.5 km is a half of its value at the see level.

15. The 10 m/s wind speed is:

33,3 km/h. 36 km/h. 30 km/h.

16. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

17. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering.

18. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

19. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

20. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

21. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

22. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

Paris. Moscow. London.

23. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

with annual periods. depending on the intensity of sunlight. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth.

24. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain place name. certain geographical location. time zone position.

25. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

1 hour. 2 hours. There is no difference.

26. 225 degrees is direction:

north west. south east. south west.

27. Direction south is reported by:

090° 180° 360°

28. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

in rapid uncontrolable rotation. under a Cumulonimbus cloud. after being blown behind a mountain ridge.

29. If I stall the glider:

I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly.

30. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

31. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

32. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind. with the wind from a side. against the wind.

33. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. using the reserve parachute. to execute a descending maneuvre.

34. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

The course must be kept but speed can be changed. This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision. These conditions must not be changed.

35. A light aircraft can be steered by:

a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a person authorized by the light aircraft operator in the presence of the pilot, or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid assessment on medical fitness or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum.

36. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

Yes. Not during an airport flight. No.

37. The aircraft, that is obliged by the rules to give way to another aircraft, must:

avoid by flying above or under or cross the other aircraft flight line at a sufficient distance. avoided so that the maintained vertical distance between aircrafts was 150 m. avoided so that the maintained horizontal distance between aircrafts was 300 m.

38. The minimum age of student for beginning of theoretical and practical paragliding training in the Czech Republic is:

16 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 14 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 15 years with the consent of his legal guardians.

39. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport.

40. Flying above a gathering of people at such a height that would not allow a safe landing in case of danger without endangering pilots or people on the ground is:

possible only at an air show with a valid authorization issued. allowed. forbidden.

41. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

43. The best way of use of the „anti-shock” foil (thermal blanket) is:

It is laid under the afflicted. The afflicted is carefully covered with it. The afflicted is tightly wraped into it including head, only face is uncovered.

44. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„The tourniquet must hurt.“ „If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“

45. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2.

46. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

1210 112 155

47. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat.

48. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position.

49. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it. If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain. If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position).

50. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

gentle transportation to the place of professional help. to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss. fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions.