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Test - PL A

1. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow. the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line.

2. The chord is:

the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts. the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil.

3. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same. is changing with weight changes. is changing when flying in wind.

4. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

does not change. increases. decreases.

5. The separation of streamlines is when:

the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil. the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape. turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow.

6. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground. it will fly 1 km in 10 s.

7. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span squared and wing surface. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span and air foil thickness.

8. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

negative pressure. overpressure. no pressure.

9. The stratification of air in an inversion layer is:

unstable. stable. indifferent.

10. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of strong turbulence?

Cirrocumulus Altocumulus lenticularis Nimbostratus

11. In practice we converse wind speed in m/s into kt by formula:

1 m/s ~ 3 kt 1 m/s ~ 2 kt 1 m/s ~ 1 kt

12. The main cause of atmospheric convection is:

uneven heating of the earth's surface of different colors. sufficient air heating on the earth's surface during unstable stratification. the day and night temperature difference.

13. During summer in Central Europe, in the central part of a significant anticyclone we expect:

clear skies, strong winds, cold at night, warm at daytime and strong thermics. inversion fog, variable wind, night thunderstorms and strong thermics during a day. mostly sunny, light wind, high temperatures duding a day, weakening thermics.

14. In our latitudes a vertically developed Cb cloud can reaches the height of:

4 km up to 15 km, or rarely even more. 1 km

15. On the northern hemisphere, the height of the troposphere, depending on latitude:

increases from south to north. is the same during the whole year. decreases from south to north.

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse.

17. What does the term „spin” mean?

Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall.

18. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Seven. Three.

20. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

21. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

22. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

depending on the intensity of sunlight. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods.

23. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

alitude. declination. negative hight, so called dephtines.

24. Magnetic course is measured:

from geographical north of local meridian. from bearing indicator. from prime meridian.

25. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

26. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

indicated air speed. true air speed. ground speed.

27. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. counterclockwise.

28. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I release the steering continuously.

29. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes.

30. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight.

31. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

32. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

in rapid uncontrolable rotation. under a Cumulonimbus cloud. after being blown behind a mountain ridge.

33. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

34. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

a specified altitude. the ground surface. the upper limit of the G class air space.

35. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

1,5 km 8 km 5 km

36. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a sport pilot and a PG instructor. a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training.

37. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

official CAA map. valid AIP or ICAO map. ADAC map.

38. Who is authorized to check a pilot's license or student document?

Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, Czech Police, Czech CAA inspector, a person authorized by an airport or property owner. Paragliding operations inspector and Paragliding technical inspector of LAA CR, a person authorized by the Ministry of Transport or the CAA of the CR, Czech Police. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, person authorized of Ministry of Transport, Czech Police or local municipal authority personnel.

39. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

40. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

forward head tilt. stabilised position. backward head tilt.

44. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

a priority first aid objective. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. necessary in case of open fracture.

45. The best way of use of the „anti-shock” foil (thermal blanket) is:

The afflicted is carefully covered with it. It is laid under the afflicted. The afflicted is tightly wraped into it including head, only face is uncovered.

46. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider. Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable.

47. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. by the lower end of chest bone. in the middle of chest bone.

48. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help.

49. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

gentle transportation to the place of professional help. to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss. fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions.

50. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond.