Check out how you stand with your knowledge to obtain a paragliding pilot's license.
Unsure or don't know the correct answer? Learn everything you need right in our online classroom.
Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

decrease of steering forces. sudden increase of descent rate. significant rise of forces in steering lines.

2. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pulling the steering. Pushing the speed system. Releasing the steering.

3. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is not changing. is changing due to a change of trailing edge position. is changing because the wing banks in the same moment.

4. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts.

5. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing with weight changes. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same. is changing when flying in wind.

6. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

overpressure. negative pressure. no pressure.

7. In a normal steady flight:

there is negative pressure on the upper surface and overpressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is overpressure on the upper and lower surface of the wing. there is overpressure on the upper surface and negative pressure on the lower surface of the wing.

8. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil. always upwards from the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the chord.

9. With increasing altitude the wind speed usually:

decreases. increases. increases in the summer and decreases in the winter.

10. Which of the following clouds can spread over several levels (according to hight levels of clouds)?

Nimbostratus Altocumulus Cirrus

11. A prerequisite for the condensation of the saturated water vapor in the troposphere is the presence of condensation nuclei which are:

solid and liquid particles. solid particles. liquid particles.

12. With increasing height, atmospheric pressure:

does not change. decreases and in the hight of 5.5 km is a half of its value at the see level. increases and in the hight of 5.5 km is double of its value at the see level.

13. The boundary between two air masses, with the weather in one air mass significantly differing from the weather in the other air mass is called:

Front. Air masses boundary. Weather boundary.

14. Turbulence is defined as:

forces acting on the aircraft in different directions and giving this aircraft various supplementary accelerations. forces increasing the aircraft’s velocity. forces acting on the aircraft in vertical directions.

15. In the definition of standard atmosphere the pressure and temperature values at mean sea level are:

1013,25 hPa, +15°C 1013,25 hPa, 0°C 1015 hPa, +10°C

16. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

17. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased.

18. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

19. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse.

20. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

21. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

22. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

23. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the compass needle free of any interferences. the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. measurements on a map.

24. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic situation. map projections. topographic area.

25. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. those with precise angles.

26. Geographical meridian is:

a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a circle around the globe. a half of meridian circle.

27. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

28. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a lonely tree. a forest road. dense forest.

29. After a tall tree landing:

you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK. you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.) you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed.

30. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing.

31. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

against the wind. with the wind from a side. with the wind.

32. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind.

33. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK.

34. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the head of air traffic. the aircraft commander (pilot). the operator.

35. Flying above a gathering of people at such a height that would not allow a safe landing in case of danger without endangering pilots or people on the ground is:

possible only at an air show with a valid authorization issued. forbidden. allowed.

36. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m STD 300 m AGL 300 m AMSL

37. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age.

38. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

from the left. against the sun. from the right.

39. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. can be entered but cannot be left.

40. A light aircraft can be steered by:

a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a person authorized by the light aircraft operator in the presence of the pilot, or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid assessment on medical fitness or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

The tourniquet needs tightening. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. We need to use another compress bandage.

44. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation. the process should be as fast as possible. caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway.

45. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen.

46. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body.

47. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

48. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage.

49. "Gasping breaths" mean:

individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction.

50. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to wave by any object of red color. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N).