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Test - PL A

1. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Releasing the steering. Pulling the steering. Pushing the speed system.

2. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

3. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens.

4. The main cause of the stall is always:

decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight. exceeding the critical angle of attack. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider.

5. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same. is changing with weight changes. is changing when flying in wind.

6. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil. always upwards from the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the chord.

7. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest. the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest.

8. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

stays the same. increases. decreases.

9. Half of the weight of the earth's atmosphere is located in the bottom:

8 km 5 km 3 km

10. We talk about stable air mass if following applies:

There are favorable conditions for ascending currents formation. There is convection forming in the air. There are unfavorable conditions for ascending currents formation.

11. Among the clouds with a great vertical development is:

Ac – altocumulus Cb – cumulonimbus Cc – cirocumulus

12. Which of the phenomena occurring on the II. kind cold front are particularly dangerous for low-flying aircraft?

Strong turbulence limited to the narrow space of vortex - the microburst, with axis approximately at the base of Cb - cumulonimbus cloud. Drop of cloud base, sometimes even to the ground. High pressure and temperature drop.

13. Wind significantly affects air traffic:

during landing and takeoff, but not in flight at flight level. in all its stages. only in flight at flight level.

14. Which of the following clouds can spread over several levels (according to hight levels of clouds)?

Altocumulus Nimbostratus Cirrus

15. Dew point temperature is:

the air temperature in given altitude. is the air temperature with determined relative humidity. the air temperature at the saturation status moment.

16. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

18. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

19. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind.

20. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

21. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

22. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation.

23. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

alitude. declination. negative hight, so called dephtines.

24. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

those with precise angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles.

25. Course is measured in degrees from north:

counterclockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. clockwise.

26. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

27. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

Moscow. London. Paris.

28. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost.

29. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

electric wires. water surface. a parking.

30. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

31. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift.

32. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. pull the A risers or lines. wait until the glider stops itself.

33. If I stall the glider:

I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly.

34. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

No. Not during an airport flight. Yes.

35. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age.

36. A light aircraft can be steered by:

a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a person authorized by the light aircraft operator in the presence of the pilot, or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid assessment on medical fitness or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum.

37. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m AGL 300 m STD 300 m AMSL

38. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

150 m 300 m 150 m except for ridge soaring.

39. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance.

40. Flying above a gathering of people at such a height that would not allow a safe landing in case of danger without endangering pilots or people on the ground is:

allowed. possible only at an air show with a valid authorization issued. forbidden.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

43. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check.

44. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen.

45. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter.

46. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the body in extended position. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage.

47. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions.

48. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too).

49. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body. placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight.

50. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.