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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line. the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line.

2. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force.

3. The chord is:

the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts. the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil.

4. Surface load:

indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight.

5. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

increases. stays the same. decreases.

6. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the air foil thickness and special aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the wing arrow and air foil thickness.

7. The lift coefficient is influenced the most by:

the speed of flow. the air foil thickness. the air foil curving.

8. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km.

9. Wind is given by:

the direction towards what it blows and speed. the direction from which it blows and speed. speed.

10. The 10 m/s wind speed is:

36 km/h. 33,3 km/h. 30 km/h.

11. In our latitudes a vertically developed Cb cloud can reaches the height of:

1 km up to 15 km, or rarely even more. 4 km

12. Which of the following processes in the air layer may lead to the formation of cumulus and cumulonimbus cloudiness?

Subsidence. Stable air layers lifting on frontal boundary. Convection.

13. At what altitude the barometric pressure reaches about a half the pressure to the mean sea level?

3000 m MSL 5500 m MSL 7000 m MSL

14. Clouds in troposphere form from:

Oxygen. water vapor. Nitrogen.

15. Among the typical local winds belongs the wind called "Föhn":

It blows from the mountains to the valley. It blows from the valley to the mountains. It blows especially in vast dry plains in the autumn.

16. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air.

17. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

18. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

19. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight.

20. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

21. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

22. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

ground speed. true air speed. indicated air speed.

23. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. Experience of the pilot and his estimation.

24. Geographical meridian is:

a circle around the globe. a half of meridian circle. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis.

25. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

26. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

60 km 45 km 50 km

27. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. north west. south west.

28. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface.

29. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

30. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

in rapid uncontrolable rotation. after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

31. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

32. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. using the reserve parachute. to execute a descending maneuvre.

33. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

wait until the glider stops itself. pull the A risers or lines. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers.

34. A light aircraft can be steered by:

a pilot who holds a valid assessment on medical fitness or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a person authorized by the light aircraft operator in the presence of the pilot, or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum.

35. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically.

36. A pilot must always have:

a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation.

37. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

38. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age.

39. Except for takeoff or landing, or except by permit issued by the Aviation Authority, a VFR flight must be conducted over the congested areas or gathering of people in the open air at a height that may not be less than:

150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft.

40. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

the airport altitude AMSL. 0. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere.

41. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain.

44. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

112 155 1210

45. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. The tourniquet needs tightening. We need to use another compress bandage.

46. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions.

47. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

lay the afflicted in the stabilized position. free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid.

48. The helmet of the afflicted:

should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck. must never be taken off. should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting.

49. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage.

50. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always as a priority on any wound or fracture. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures.