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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing when flying in wind. is changing with weight changes. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same.

2. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in different directions. the flow of air particles in the same direction. when the air particles are not moving.

3. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag.

4. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

5. The aircraft falls when:

it gets over the critical angle of attack. the pilot makes too sharp turn. the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed.

6. Induced drag:

arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft. arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft. arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference.

7. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

8. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pulling the steering. Releasing the steering. Pushing the speed system.

9. In the area of high pressure in the northern hemisphere the wind close to the ground is blowing:

clockwise. counter clockwise. strait out from the middle of high pressure in the whole area.

10. What do we mean by the term "clear thermic"?

An ascending thermal current not topped by a cumulus cloud. Turbulence associated with a windshear. Strong gusty wind in a coud free environment.

11. The basic cause of mechanical turbulence is:

the air mass humidity and temperature. the air mass stratification. wind and configuration of terrain.

12. Coriolis force acting on the wind is:

the centrifugal force. inertia force causing bodies movement deflection, thus also the air flow. the friction force.

13. If a paraglider or powered paraglider pilot sees a Cumulonimbus cloud while flying, he should:

land on a suitable landing field as soon as possible. fly around the storm area in a safe distance. fly under the cloud in a safe vertical distance from its cloud base.

14. Which of the following types of cloud is considered low level cloud?

St As Ns

15. Dew point temperature is:

the air temperature in given altitude. is the air temperature with determined relative humidity. the air temperature at the saturation status moment.

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

17. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Seven. Five.

19. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering.

20. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

22. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

23. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the compass needle free of any interferences. the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. measurements on a map.

24. 225 degrees is direction:

south west. south east. north west.

25. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

26. The horizontal velocity is given:

in feet. in knots. in km/h, MPH or knots (kts).

27. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

200 km 50 km 20 km

28. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

29. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. in rapid uncontrolable rotation. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

30. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind from a side. with the wind. against the wind.

31. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers.

32. If I stall the glider:

I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly.

33. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost.

34. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

create a collision hazard. be less then 150m. restrict the other aircraft.

35. Restricted air space (LK R):

can be passed through under specified conditions. must be passed through. must not be passed through.

36. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground.

37. LAA regulation, which governs the rules of flying a paraglider in the Czech Republic is called:

PL - 2 ZL - 3 ZL - 1

38. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

5 km 1,5 km 8 km

39. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m AMSL 300 m AGL 300 m STD

40. To recalculate a figure in meters into figure in feet we use the simplified formula:

(m x 3) : 10 (m x 3) + 10% (m : 10) x 3

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early.

43. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

First we try to free the airway. We start the resuscitation immediately. We promptly transport him to the professional medical service.

44. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly. the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness.

45. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond. if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect.

46. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

in the middle of chest bone. by the lower end of chest bone. next to left nipple.

47. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen.

48. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services. We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help.

49. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture.

50. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment.