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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

gravity force and lift plus drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift. lift and drag.

2. The optimal gliding ratio can be flown:

with just one angle of attack. with critical angle of attack. with two different angles of attack.

3. The chord is:

the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts. the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil.

4. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it will fly 1 km in 10 s. it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground.

5. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

6. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

stays the same. increases. decreases.

7. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change. changes because effective bearing area is the same. does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change.

8. The lift coefficient is influenced the most by:

the speed of flow. the air foil thickness. the air foil curving.

9. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Persistent rainfall. Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts. Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing.

10. The 10 m/s wind speed is:

36 km/h. 30 km/h. 33,3 km/h.

11. The land breeze:

blows during a day and is stronger than the see breeze. blows during a day and is weaker than the see breeze. blows at night and is weaker than the see breeze.

12. The beginning of thunder storm is characterized by:

frequent lightning. rain on the earth's surface. persistent ascending currents.

13. How the air masses move in a warm front?

Cold air shifts above the warm air mass. Warm air shifts below the cold air mass. Warm air shifts above the cold air mass.

14. The valley wind is blowing:

along the mountain valley axis at daytime up to the mountains (against the river stream). across the valley due to winds aloft. across the valley up the mountain slopes.

15. Local isolated thunderstorms are mostly:

frontal air lift (cold front). mass storms. frontal air lift (warm front).

16. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse.

18. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering.

19. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

20. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing.

21. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

22. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

23. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Paris. Moscow.

24. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. certain place name. time zone position.

25. The horizontal velocity is given:

in knots. in feet. in km/h, MPH or knots (kts).

26. Geographical North and South:

are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. do not change location. change location depending on annual periods.

27. 225 degrees is direction:

south west. north west. south east.

28. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. dense forest. a lonely tree.

29. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field.

30. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

31. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

32. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing.

33. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

34. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the upper limit of the G class air space. a specified altitude. the ground surface.

35. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight. the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance.

36. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight.

37. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset. only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority. from sunset to sunrise.

38. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at a flight outside the airport. at every cross country flight. at every flight.

39. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

60 degrees. 70 degrees. 80 degrees.

40. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

Yes. Not during an airport flight. No.

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

44. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen.

45. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„The tourniquet must hurt.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „If using tourniquet, then properly.“

46. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status.

47. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs.

48. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest. the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move. we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery.

49. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage. The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position.

50. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check.