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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the chord. always upwards from the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil.

2. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force.

3. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the speed and drag ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio.

4. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy. changes of the size of projected area of the canopy.

5. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

6. The resultant aerodynamic force consists of:

lift and drag. lift and weight. lift coefficient and weight.

7. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts.

8. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

increases. decreases. does not change.

9. Wind is:

the horizontal flow (moving) of the air. the mixing of air particles. the vertical air movement.

10. Which of the layers of Earth's atmosphere is characterized by vertical movements?

Troposphere. Tropopause. Stratosphere.

11. With increasing height, atmospheric pressure:

does not change. decreases and in the hight of 5.5 km is a half of its value at the see level. increases and in the hight of 5.5 km is double of its value at the see level.

12. At the passing active II. kind cold front we encounter typical dangerous phenomena:

strong turbulence, severe icing, active thunderstorm activity, heavy showers, strong winds. low clouds, thick stratiform clouds and strong persistent rainfall. icing, persistent rainfall, impaired visibility.

13. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the greatest:

in the temperate zones. over the poles. over the equatorial regions.

14. Increasing distance between isobars means that in the given area the air velocity will be:

slower. the distance between isobars tells nothing about the air velocity. faster.

15. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Radiation fog. Frontal fog. Advection fog.

16. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased.

17. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Five. Seven.

18. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers.

19. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain.

20. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

21. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

22. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic situation. map projections. topographic area.

23. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

perpendicularly to the wind from left. against the wind. with the wind.

24. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

25. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

26. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

depending on the intensity of sunlight. with annual periods. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth.

27. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. those with precise angles.

28. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

29. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind.

30. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to turn the glider against the wind.

31. For emergency landing You would prefer:

trees. water. buildings.

32. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

33. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him.

34. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

70 degrees. 80 degrees. 60 degrees.

35. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age.

36. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

The course must be kept but speed can be changed. These conditions must not be changed. This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision.

37. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

8 km 5 km 1,5 km

38. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered but cannot be left. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority.

39. Except for takeoff or landing, or except by permit issued by the Aviation Authority, a VFR flight must be conducted over the congested areas or gathering of people in the open air at a height that may not be less than:

150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

40. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the head of air traffic. the aircraft commander (pilot). the operator.

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid. free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the stabilized position.

44. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions only.

45. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status).

46. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state.

47. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage.

48. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

the highest possible frequency of compressions. the deepest compressions. timely starting and continuity of compressions.

49. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by waving any object of bright color. by standing with arms up in Y shape. by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape.

50. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the body in extended position.