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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. In a normal steady flight:

there is overpressure on the upper and lower surface of the wing. there is negative pressure on the upper surface and overpressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is overpressure on the upper surface and negative pressure on the lower surface of the wing.

2. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts.

3. Surface load:

indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight. indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area.

4. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

5. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

decreases. stays the same. increases.

6. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is changing due to a change of trailing edge position. is not changing. is changing because the wing banks in the same moment.

7. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag.

8. At the critical angle of attack:

the drag coefficient drops abruptly. the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly. the lift coefficient sharply increases.

9. Which basic parameters and phenomena determine the weather inside air masses?

Precipitations and visibility. Pressure, clouds and air density. Temperature, humidity, vertical temperature gradient.

10. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

at noon. in winter at midday. in summer at midday.

11. When climbing through the transition altitude the altimeter setting is changed. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter data?

It will not be affected. It will decrease. It will increase.

12. A cold front progresses faster than a warm front, the warm sector at the ground level gradually narrows and the warm air in this region is forced up into the higher layers. This process is called:

cyclone extinction. oclusion. cyclone filling.

13. What type of precipitation can be expected on an active cold front?

Showers and thunderstorms. Light persistent rain. Drizzle.

14. What ground level weather is usually associated with a permanent area of high pressure over the mainland in winter?

Thunderstorms. Fog tendency and low St-type cloudiness. Ns cloudiness with permanent rain.

15. Unsaturated adiabatic curve is showing the change in temperature with height of value:

0,65 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,60 °C / 100 m of hight. 1,00 °C / 100 m of hight.

16. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

17. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

18. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

19. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased.

20. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

21. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

22. The horizontal velocity is given:

in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in knots. in feet.

23. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

2 hours. There is no difference. 1 hour.

24. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

Paris. London. Moscow.

25. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

ground speed. indicated air speed. true air speed.

26. Time is reported:

in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute.

27. The globe is:

ideal sphere. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. a net of coordinate lines.

28. For emergency landing You would prefer:

water. trees. buildings.

29. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind from a side. with the wind. against the wind.

30. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

31. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes.

32. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him.

33. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

dense forest. a forest road. a lonely tree.

34. The dangerous airspace (LKD) is is an area where flying is:

prohibited. dangerous. restricted.

35. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground.

36. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight. The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety.

37. If two aircrafts are flying on lines facing each other or approximately such, each of them should give way by changing its course to the:

right. side which is more suitable for avoiding a crash. left.

38. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision. These conditions must not be changed. The course must be kept but speed can be changed.

39. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR. to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN.

40. If two or more aircrafts heavier then air are approaching one airport with the intention to land and the avoidance rules do not apply, the priority of landing is as follows:

the slower aircraft gives way to the faster aircraft. the aircraft flying higher gives way to the lower flying aircraft. the aircraft flying on left gives way to the aircraft flying from right.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions. to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss. gentle transportation to the place of professional help.

44. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body.

45. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider.

46. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

in the middle of chest bone. next to left nipple. by the lower end of chest bone.

47. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen.

48. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

The tourniquet needs tightening. We need to use another compress bandage. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up.

49. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case.

50. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body.