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Test - PL A

1. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

changes because effective bearing area is the same. changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change. does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change.

2. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil. always upwards from the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the chord.

3. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

thrust and weight, drag and lift. lift and drag. gravity force and lift plus drag.

4. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive).

5. At the critical angle of attack:

the drag coefficient drops abruptly. the lift coefficient sharply increases. the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly.

6. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

7. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

negative pressure. no pressure. overpressure.

8. The optimal gliding ratio can be flown:

with two different angles of attack. with just one angle of attack. with critical angle of attack.

9. The form of precipitation falling out of vertically developed cloud type Cb - cumulonimbus is mostly:

drizzle. light rain. rain and hail.

10. Dangerous storm phenomena are:

the density of the Cb cloud which consists of liquid and solid state of water. strong updrafts and hight of the Cb could. strong updrafts with maximums in the upper half of CB cloud, stong turbulence, strong downdrafts with maximums near the CB cloudbase, frosts, electric characteristics of the Cb cloud.

11. Stationary front is the one that:

is not moving or moves very slowly. is moving in leaps. is moving only clockwise.

12. The stratification of air in an inversion layer is:

stable. indifferent. unstable.

13. Which of the following types of cloud is considered low level cloud?

As St Ns

14. Clouds in troposphere form from:

Nitrogen. Oxygen. water vapor.

15. Wind is:

the vertical air movement. the horizontal flow (moving) of the air. the mixing of air particles.

16. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

17. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Five. Three.

19. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

20. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain.

21. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

22. Geographical North and South:

are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. change location depending on annual periods. do not change location.

23. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. depending on the intensity of sunlight. with annual periods.

24. The horizontal velocity is given:

in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in feet. in knots.

25. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in degrees.

26. Comparative navigation involves:

comparing the calculated times with the reality. comparing terrain with a map and vice versa. comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map.

27. Magnetic course is measured:

from geographical north of local meridian. from prime meridian. from bearing indicator.

28. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

29. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

30. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident.

31. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers.

32. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly.

33. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift.

34. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in 1500 m AMSL. in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map). in FL 125.

35. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at every flight. with them at cross country flights. with them at flights outside the airport.

36. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground.

37. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the operator. the head of air traffic. the aircraft commander (pilot).

38. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

39. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. a specified altitude. the upper limit of the G class air space.

40. From a sport aircraft (SLZ) it is forbidden:

to drop things between sunrise and sunset. to drop anything or spray, except under certain conditions. to spray.

41. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

44. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We start the resuscitation immediately. We promptly transport him to the professional medical service. First we try to free the airway.

45. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond. if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect.

46. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body.

47. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain. If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position). If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it.

48. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration.

49. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection.

50. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check.