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Test - PL A

1. Surface load:

indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight. indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area.

2. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the drag and the gravity force. the weight of the aircraft and lift. the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force.

3. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive).

4. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

Only for tail wind. Yes. No.

5. The aircraft falls when:

the pilot makes too sharp turn. it gets over the critical angle of attack. the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed.

6. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases.

7. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag. lift, mass and drag. lift and overpressure.

8. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

increases. decreases. does not change.

9. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of strong turbulence?

Altocumulus lenticularis Nimbostratus Cirrocumulus

10. What type of precipitation can be expected on an active cold front?

Light persistent rain. Showers and thunderstorms. Drizzle.

11. In the air mass without cloudiness, the air temperature at the surface is 15 ° C and 1000 m higher the temperature is 13 ° C. This layer of air is:

unstable. stable. conditionally unstable.

12. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

Sc, Ns St, Cs Cu, Cb

13. What ground level weather is usually associated with a permanent area of high pressure over the mainland in winter?

Fog tendency and low St-type cloudiness. Ns cloudiness with permanent rain. Thunderstorms.

14. An aircraft is flying at a very warm day across the Alps. The weather is good and there is an anticyclone in the area. The aircraft is flying by a mountain at the hight of its summit. What value is the altimeter showing compared to the summit altitude?

A lower height than the summit altitude. The same height as the summit altitude. A higher height than the summit altitude.

15. The most common wind direction in the valley caused by thermal effects is:

during the night towards the hill. during the day towards the hill. during the day down the hill.

16. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

17. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Seven. Five.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

19. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

20. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers.

21. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

22. The globe is:

ideal sphere. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. a net of coordinate lines.

23. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Moscow. Paris.

24. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in degrees.

25. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to focus on one landmark. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to locate and identify several landmarks.

26. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the marine poles. the geological poles. the magnetic poles.

27. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

true air speed. indicated air speed. ground speed.

28. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the A risers or lines. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. wait until the glider stops itself.

29. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway.

30. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud. in rapid uncontrolable rotation.

31. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare.

32. After a tall tree landing:

you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK. you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.) you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed.

33. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

against the wind. with the wind. with the wind from a side.

34. The dangerous airspace (LKD) is is an area where flying is:

prohibited. restricted. dangerous.

35. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

70 degrees. 80 degrees. 60 degrees.

36. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment

37. What is it CTR?

Control zone of an airport. Terminal controlled area. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden.

38. Except for takeoff or landing, or except by permit issued by the Aviation Authority, a VFR flight must be conducted over the congested areas or gathering of people in the open air at a height that may not be less than:

300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft. 150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

39. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

No. Yes. Only in clouds.

40. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered but cannot be left. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

42. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents.

43. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state.

44. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid. lay the afflicted in the stabilized position.

45. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the body in extended position. hanging in a triangular bandage.

46. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

backward head tilt. stabilised position. forward head tilt.

47. The helmet of the afflicted:

should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck. should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting. must never be taken off.

48. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it.

49. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

timely starting and continuity of compressions. the highest possible frequency of compressions. the deepest compressions.

50. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.