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Test - PL A

1. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase.

2. The lift on the aerofoil:

is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing.

3. The separation of streamlines is when:

the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape. turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow. the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil.

4. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest. the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall.

5. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in different directions. the flow of air particles in the same direction. when the air particles are not moving.

6. Larger part of lift is generated:

below the aerofoil, around 2/3. above the aerofoil, around 2/3. above 2/3 of the aerofoil, around 55%.

7. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line. the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line.

8. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

decreases. stays the same. increases.

9. The basic cause of mechanical turbulence is:

the air mass stratification. the air mass humidity and temperature. wind and configuration of terrain.

10. We call it unstable stratification when in unsaturated air:

an unsaturated particle stops at a level at which external force has ceased to act. an unsaturated air particle as it exits from the equilibrium position continues to climb even when the external force ceases to act. an unsaturated particle, after removal of the external force, returns to its original position.

11. Which basic parameters and phenomena determine the weather inside air masses?

Precipitations and visibility. Pressure, clouds and air density. Temperature, humidity, vertical temperature gradient.

12. In the air mass without cloudiness, the air temperature at the surface is 15 ° C and 1000 m higher the temperature is 13 ° C. This layer of air is:

stable. unstable. conditionally unstable.

13. Coriolis force acting on the wind is:

the friction force. inertia force causing bodies movement deflection, thus also the air flow. the centrifugal force.

14. The air mass is called unstable if there are:

convective vertical motions in it. inversions in it. stratified clouds in it.

15. Turbulence is defined as:

forces acting on the aircraft in different directions and giving this aircraft various supplementary accelerations. forces acting on the aircraft in vertical directions. forces increasing the aircraft’s velocity.

16. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Seven. Three.

17. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

18. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

19. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

20. The take off control includes:

the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

21. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

22. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 2 hours. 1 hour.

23. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. There is no difference. 1 hour.

24. Geographical meridian is:

a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a half of meridian circle. a circle around the globe.

25. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

60 km 45 km 50 km

26. The prime meridian is:

the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England.

27. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. depending on the intensity of sunlight. with annual periods.

28. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. wait until the glider stops itself. pull the A risers or lines.

29. After a tall tree landing:

you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed. you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK. you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.)

30. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy. weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself.

31. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

32. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare.

33. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow.

34. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. can be entered but cannot be left. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority.

35. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

70 degrees. 80 degrees. 60 degrees.

36. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR. to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN.

37. From a sport aircraft (SLZ) it is forbidden:

to drop anything or spray, except under certain conditions. to spray. to drop things between sunrise and sunset.

38. A light aircraft can be steered by:

a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a person authorized by the light aircraft operator in the presence of the pilot, or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid assessment on medical fitness or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum.

39. What is it CTR?

Control zone of an airport. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden. Terminal controlled area.

40. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility. at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically.

41. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N). to wave by any object of red color. to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards.

44. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration.

45. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger. If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable.

46. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

47. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“

48. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective.

49. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2.

50. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

112 155 1210