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Test - PL A

1. The induced drag can be reduced by:

aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the air foil thickness and special the wing arrow and air foil thickness.

2. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

increases. decreases. stays the same.

3. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

4. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

Yes. Only for tail wind. No.

5. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

6. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing.

7. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground. it will fly 1 km in 10 s.

8. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

total weight. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients). the velocity of flow.

9. Humidity means:

the amount of water vapor in the air snowing precipitation fall

10. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

in winter at midday. at noon. in summer at midday.

11. When climbing through the transition altitude the altimeter setting is changed. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter data?

It will increase. It will not be affected. It will decrease.

12. Which type of precipitation comes off water only containing clouds at mid-latitudes?

Drizzle. Light rain with big drops. Intensive rain.

13. In practice we converse wind speed in m/s into kt by formula:

1 m/s ~ 3 kt 1 m/s ~ 2 kt 1 m/s ~ 1 kt

14. What are the other two conditions, besides forces causing air lift, necessary for the creation of a thunderstorm?

Stable conditions and high air pressure. Unstable conditions and high air humidity. Unstable conditions and low air pressure.

15. The speed of a thermal current depends on:

time of day and season. uneven heating of cyclonic thermal convective clouds. instability rate and air warming from the ground surface.

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

19. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

20. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

22. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

23. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate compass. accurate watch. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

24. Comparative navigation involves:

comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing terrain with a map and vice versa. comparing the calculated times with the reality.

25. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

26. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

with the wind. against the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left.

27. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. certain place name. time zone position.

28. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

29. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

water surface. electric wires. a parking.

30. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position.

31. For emergency landing You would prefer:

trees. water. buildings.

32. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift.

33. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

34. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

be less then 150m. restrict the other aircraft. create a collision hazard.

35. The paraglider canopy is damaged mostly by:

mice and other wild rodents. storage in dark and dry rooms. UV rays, mechanical abrasion and humidity.

36. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight. The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety.

37. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically.

38. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision. These conditions must not be changed. The course must be kept but speed can be changed.

39. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security

40. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. the upper limit of the G class air space. a specified altitude.

41. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

44. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil.

45. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage. put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage. lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle.

46. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest. the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move. we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery.

47. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond. if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years.

48. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

49. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly. the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body.

50. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check. 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions.