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Test - PL A

1. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

4 kg/m3 0.4 kg/m3 0.25 kg/m3

2. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

overpressure. negative pressure. no pressure.

3. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is changing because the wing banks in the same moment. is not changing. is changing due to a change of trailing edge position.

4. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

Yes. Only for tail wind. No.

5. The aircraft falls when:

the pilot makes too sharp turn. it gets over the critical angle of attack. the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed.

6. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest.

7. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

8. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

9. When climbing through the transition altitude the altimeter setting is changed. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter data?

It will increase. It will decrease. It will not be affected.

10. The basic cause of mechanical turbulence is:

the air mass stratification. wind and configuration of terrain. the air mass humidity and temperature.

11. What temperature stratification is favorable for the occurence of vertical motions in the troposphere?

indifferent stable instable

12. The part of cyclone between the warm and cold fronts is called:

the warm sector. the ridge of higher pressure. the front line.

13. Wind is:

the vertical air movement. the mixing of air particles. the horizontal flow (moving) of the air.

14. Which of the following cloud types may reach up into the stratosphere?

Cirrostratus Cumulus Cumulonimbus

15. The main cause of atmospheric convection is:

the day and night temperature difference. uneven heating of the earth's surface of different colors. sufficient air heating on the earth's surface during unstable stratification.

16. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased. increased.

17. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain.

18. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

20. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

21. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering.

22. The prime meridian is:

meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0.

23. 225 degrees is direction:

south west. north west. south east.

24. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. time zone position. certain place name.

25. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

those with precise angles. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale.

26. Magnetic course is measured:

from prime meridian. from bearing indicator. from geographical north of local meridian.

27. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

identical. not identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole.

28. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the A risers or lines. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. wait until the glider stops itself.

29. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to turn the glider against the wind.

30. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. in rapid uncontrolable rotation. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

31. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway.

32. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

33. For emergency landing You would prefer:

trees. buildings. water.

34. To recalculate a figure in meters into figure in feet we use the simplified formula:

(m x 3) : 10 (m x 3) + 10% (m : 10) x 3

35. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight.

36. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

from sunset to sunrise. in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset. only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority.

37. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

38. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules.

39. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

No. Not during an airport flight. Yes.

40. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN. to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

42. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

The tourniquet needs tightening. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. We need to use another compress bandage.

44. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain.

45. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2.

46. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

in the middle of chest bone. by the lower end of chest bone. next to left nipple.

47. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain.

48. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it.

49. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture.

50. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by standing with arms up in Y shape. by waving any object of bright color. by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape.