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Test - PL A

1. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force. the drag and the gravity force. the weight of the aircraft and lift.

2. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts.

3. The lift on the aerofoil:

is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing.

4. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

4 kg/m3 0.25 kg/m3 0.4 kg/m3

5. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest. the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest.

6. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

decreases. increases. does not change.

7. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio. the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the speed and drag ratio.

8. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

the velocity of flow. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients). total weight.

9. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the greatest:

over the poles. over the equatorial regions. in the temperate zones.

10. Condensed isobars on the synoptic map indicate:

high temperature difference. greater pressure difference and therefore stronger wind. pressure level of the area.

11. There are massive and pronounced Cb - cumulonimbus clouds forming in the area of a athmospheric front. It is a typical manifestation of:

warm ocluded front. II. type cold front. warm front.

12. Humidity means:

the amount of water vapor in the air snowing precipitation fall

13. What are the characteristic signs of the weather on the leeward side of the mountains during Fohn?

Variable cloudiness and occasional rain, moderate or no wind. Few clouds, unusual increase of temperature, low humidity, often strong winds. Overcast, precipitation, good visibility.

14. A passing cold front with active storm manifestations is reflected by:

a temperature decrease later followed by its increase, no change in athmospheric pressure, wind fading. no change in temperature, slight pressure decrease and slight wind speed decrease without gusts. temperature decrease, strong athmopheric pressure decrease followed by its increase, strong wind speed increase with gusts.

15. Cooling speed of rising air saturated with water vapor is less than of unsaturated air because:

condensation releases heat. water vapor absorbs heat radiated by air. water vapor is not cooled as fast as dry air.

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

17. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

18. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

19. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

20. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight.

21. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

22. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

measurements on a map. the compass needle free of any interferences. the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south.

23. Magnetic course is measured:

from bearing indicator. from prime meridian. from geographical north of local meridian.

24. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods. depending on the intensity of sunlight.

25. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

negative hight, so called dephtines. declination. alitude.

26. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

There is no difference. 2 hours. 1 hour.

27. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain. accurate watch. accurate compass.

28. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud. in rapid uncontrolable rotation.

29. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. using the reserve parachute. to execute a descending maneuvre.

30. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers.

31. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

32. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears.

33. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. a lonely tree. dense forest.

34. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every cross country flight. at every flight. at a flight outside the airport.

35. A light aircraft can be steered by:

a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a person authorized by the light aircraft operator in the presence of the pilot, or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid assessment on medical fitness or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum.

36. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Only in clouds. Yes. No.

37. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

the airport altitude AMSL. 0. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere.

38. TMA (Terminal Control Area)

can be flown under only with a two way radio communication with AFIS. can be flown under. cannot be flown under or over.

39. To recalculate a figure in meters into figure in feet we use the simplified formula:

(m : 10) x 3 (m x 3) + 10% (m x 3) : 10

40. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN. to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR.

41. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body.

44. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond. if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years.

45. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state.

46. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

47. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“ „If using tourniquet, then properly.“

48. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. in the middle of chest bone. by the lower end of chest bone.

49. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage.

50. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain.