Check out how you stand with your knowledge to obtain a paragliding pilot's license.
Unsure or don't know the correct answer? Learn everything you need right in our online classroom.
Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

significant rise of forces in steering lines. decrease of steering forces. sudden increase of descent rate.

2. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord. If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back.

3. When air flow is laminar:

there is a relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is no relative mix of streamlines.

4. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface.

5. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

No. Only for tail wind. Yes.

6. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

total weight. the velocity of flow. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients).

7. Induced drag:

arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft. arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference. arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft.

8. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. its velocity is 6 m/s.

9. When climbing through the transition altitude the altimeter setting is changed. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter data?

It will not be affected. It will increase. It will decrease.

10. What thunder storms move forward the fastest?

Orographic storms. Frontal storms. Mass storms.

11. What ground level weather is usually associated with a permanent area of high pressure over the mainland in winter?

Thunderstorms. Ns cloudiness with permanent rain. Fog tendency and low St-type cloudiness.

12. Precipitation zone of a warm front is:

mostly right after the front line and it is showers. before the front line and it is persistent rainfall. at the front line and it is short rainfall.

13. What weather conditions are expected in temperate latitudes over land in summer in the middle of a stationary area of high pressure?

Weak winds, haze. Thunderstorms, clear air and strong winds. Ns clouds.

14. When I. kind cold front passes, the precipitation zone is:

before the front line. at the front line. after the front line.

15. The speed of a thermal current depends on:

time of day and season. instability rate and air warming from the ground surface. uneven heating of cyclonic thermal convective clouds.

16. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight.

17. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

19. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

21. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

22. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

50 km 20 km 200 km

23. Geographical North and South:

change location depending on annual periods. do not change location. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism.

24. Geographical meridian is:

a half of meridian circle. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a circle around the globe.

25. Geographic coordinates indicate:

time zone position. certain place name. certain geographical location.

26. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground.

27. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

45 km 60 km 50 km

28. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare.

29. For emergency landing You would prefer:

water. trees. buildings.

30. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

31. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly.

32. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident.

33. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

water surface. electric wires. a parking.

34. To recalculate a figure in meters into figure in feet we use the simplified formula:

(m : 10) x 3 (m x 3) + 10% (m x 3) : 10

35. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

five months. nine months. six months.

36. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the operator. the head of air traffic. the aircraft commander (pilot).

37. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Only in clouds. No. Yes.

38. LAA regulation, which governs the rules of flying a paraglider in the Czech Republic is called:

ZL - 1 PL - 2 ZL - 3

39. Except for takeoff or landing, or except by permit issued by the Aviation Authority, a VFR flight must be conducted over the congested areas or gathering of people in the open air at a height that may not be less than:

300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

40. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered but cannot be left. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“

44. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it.

45. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The priority of an improvised transport is speed. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport.

46. The telephone number of medical emergency service in the Czech Republic is:

155 158 150

47. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet.

48. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too).

49. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.

50. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond.