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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the chord. always upwards from the aerofoil.

2. When air flow is laminar:

there is no relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow.

3. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil.

4. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight.

5. A paraglider stall occures when:

the glider overcomes the pilot when taking off. the pilot breaks too much. the speed system is pushed too fast.

6. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same. is changing with weight changes. is changing when flying in wind.

7. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change. changes because effective bearing area is the same. does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change.

8. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end.

9. The greatest concentration of condensation nuclei is:

near large urban areas (industrial areas). above mountains. above oceans.

10. At the passing active II. kind cold front we encounter typical dangerous phenomena:

icing, persistent rainfall, impaired visibility. low clouds, thick stratiform clouds and strong persistent rainfall. strong turbulence, severe icing, active thunderstorm activity, heavy showers, strong winds.

11. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is called:

stratosphere. troposphere. mesosphere.

12. The high pressure - anticyclone - is the area of:

high atmospheric pressure with the highest value on its border. high atmospheric pressure with the highest value in its middle. high atmospheric pressure rising in particular direction.

13. The boundary between troposphere and stratosphere is called:

tropopause atmosphere ionosphere

14. How is relative humidity of air affected by changes in the quantity of water vapor contained in it?

It increases with increasing amounts of water vapor. It is not affected by water vapour amount changes. It is affected only by temperature.

15. At what altitude the barometric pressure reaches about a half the pressure to the mean sea level?

3000 m MSL 7000 m MSL 5500 m MSL

16. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

17. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind.

18. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

19. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

20. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.

21. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse.

22. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

not identical. identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole.

23. The prime meridian is:

meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle.

24. 225 degrees is direction:

south west. south east. north west.

25. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

negative hight, so called dephtines. declination. alitude.

26. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. There is no difference. 1 hour.

27. The globe is:

ideal sphere. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. a net of coordinate lines.

28. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

wait until the glider stops itself. pull the A risers or lines. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers.

29. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

30. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

31. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears.

32. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers.

33. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to turn the glider against the wind.

34. A pilot must always have:

a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation. a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.

35. In G class airspace there is:

a request of permanent two way connection. a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL. no request of connection.

36. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground.

37. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

No. Yes. Not during an airport flight.

38. What is it CTR?

Terminal controlled area. Control zone of an airport. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden.

39. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

1,5 km 8 km 5 km

40. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in FL 125. in 1500 m AMSL. in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map).

41. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective.

44. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. by the lower end of chest bone. in the middle of chest bone.

45. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

1210 155 112

46. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage. lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle. fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage.

47. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position.

48. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. anywhere between the wound and heart.

49. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position). a position that the afflicted person wants to take. the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„

50. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help. If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious. Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are.