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Test - PL A

1. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

2. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

lift and drag. gravity force and lift plus drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift.

3. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

decreases. increases. does not change.

4. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens.

5. The resultant aerodynamic force consists of:

lift coefficient and weight. lift and drag. lift and weight.

6. Lift is:

the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force. an area resistance given by the angle of attack.

7. Induced drag:

arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference. arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft. arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft.

8. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

lift and overpressure. the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag. lift, mass and drag.

9. The air density of the atmosphere with altitude:

doesn't change. increases. decreases.

10. Which of the following processes in the air layer may lead to the formation of cumulus and cumulonimbus cloudiness?

Convection. Subsidence. Stable air layers lifting on frontal boundary.

11. The change of physical state water vapor - water is called:

solidification condensation crystallization

12. How the air masses move in a warm front?

Cold air shifts above the warm air mass. Warm air shifts below the cold air mass. Warm air shifts above the cold air mass.

13. In what part of a day is the highest probability of mass storm occurrence in Middle Europe?

Around midnight. Late morning. Noon, afternoon.

14. At what altitude the barometric pressure reaches about a half the pressure to the mean sea level?

5500 m MSL 3000 m MSL 7000 m MSL

15. The boundary between troposphere and stratosphere is called:

tropopause atmosphere ionosphere

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

17. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

18. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

19. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system.

20. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Seven. Three.

21. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

22. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to focus on one landmark. to locate and identify several landmarks.

23. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

24. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

Moscow. London. Paris.

25. 045 degrees is direction:

south west. north west. north east.

26. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. not identical.

27. Course is measured in degrees from north:

counterclockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. clockwise.

28. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull the steering fully. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

29. If I stall the glider:

I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly.

30. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn.

31. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. a lonely tree. dense forest.

32. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

under a Cumulonimbus cloud. in rapid uncontrolable rotation. after being blown behind a mountain ridge.

33. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

34. Airport operations are:

all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport. all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area.

35. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the head of air traffic. the aircraft commander (pilot). the operator.

36. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age.

37. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

38. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

39. Flying above a gathering of people at such a height that would not allow a safe landing in case of danger without endangering pilots or people on the ground is:

possible only at an air show with a valid authorization issued. forbidden. allowed.

40. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

valid AIP or ICAO map. ADAC map. official CAA map.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious. Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are. First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help.

44. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet.

45. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle. fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage. put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage.

46. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position.

47. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. always as a priority on any wound or fracture.

48. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil.

49. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the body in extended position.

50. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

the deepest compressions. the highest possible frequency of compressions. timely starting and continuity of compressions.