Check out how you stand with your knowledge to obtain a paragliding pilot's license.
Unsure or don't know the correct answer? Learn everything you need right in our online classroom.
Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line.

2. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

does not change. decreases. increases.

3. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

4. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

thrust and weight, drag and lift. gravity force and lift plus drag. lift and drag.

5. The chord is:

the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil. the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts.

6. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord. An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back.

7. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

Yes. Only for tail wind. No.

8. At the critical angle of attack:

the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly. the drag coefficient drops abruptly. the lift coefficient sharply increases.

9. Dew point is:

the temperature to which air must be cooled to induce condensation. a place over which a cloud will form. the height of the zero isotherm.

10. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

in summer at midday. in winter at midday. at noon.

11. How is relative humidity of air affected by changes in the quantity of water vapor contained in it?

It is not affected by water vapour amount changes. It increases with increasing amounts of water vapor. It is affected only by temperature.

12. We call it unstable stratification when in unsaturated air:

an unsaturated particle, after removal of the external force, returns to its original position. an unsaturated air particle as it exits from the equilibrium position continues to climb even when the external force ceases to act. an unsaturated particle stops at a level at which external force has ceased to act.

13. Isobars are lines on surface weather maps that connect points:

of the same humidity. of the same temperature recalculated to the sea level. of the same pressure recalculated to the sea level.

14. The basic cause of cloud formation in the atmosphere is:

achieving a state of saturation. decrease of air temperature with height. achieving a state of saturation followed by water vapor condensation.

15. Half of the weight of the earth's atmosphere is located in the bottom:

8 km 3 km 5 km

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

17. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

18. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind.

19. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse.

20. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased. increased.

21. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

22. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

23. Comparative navigation involves:

comparing the calculated times with the reality. comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing terrain with a map and vice versa.

24. The globe is:

ideal sphere. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. a net of coordinate lines.

25. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. certain place name. time zone position.

26. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

not identical. identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole.

27. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

28. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide.

29. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself. pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy.

30. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing.

31. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost.

32. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

in rapid uncontrolable rotation. after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

33. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. a lonely tree. dense forest.

34. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”. always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR. always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR.

35. The minimum age of student for beginning of theoretical and practical paragliding training in the Czech Republic is:

15 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 16 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 14 years with the consent of his legal guardians.

36. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight above the ground level. the hight according the local atmospheric pressure. the hight above the see level.

37. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 125 (3800 m) FL 85 (2600 m) FL 95 (2900 m)

38. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

No. Yes. Only in clouds.

39. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

restrict the other aircraft. be less then 150m. create a collision hazard.

40. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at a flight outside the airport. at every flight. at every cross country flight.

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions. gentle transportation to the place of professional help. to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss.

44. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

We need to use another compress bandage. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. The tourniquet needs tightening.

45. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

into a stretcher tied straight branches. the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape. his paragliding harness.

46. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

timely starting and continuity of compressions. the deepest compressions. the highest possible frequency of compressions.

47. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

48. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.

49. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services.

50. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.