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Test - PL A

1. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed. the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider. the weight and lift ratio.

2. The resultant aerodynamic force consists of:

lift and drag. lift coefficient and weight. lift and weight.

3. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases.

4. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the wing arrow and air foil thickness. aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the air foil thickness and special

5. The separation of streamlines is when:

the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil. turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow. the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape.

6. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface.

7. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

8. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

increases. does not change. decreases.

9. If a paraglider or powered paraglider pilot sees a Cumulonimbus cloud while flying, he should:

land on a suitable landing field as soon as possible. fly around the storm area in a safe distance. fly under the cloud in a safe vertical distance from its cloud base.

10. Frontal fog forms usually on:

worm fronts. II. type cold fronts. stationary fronts.

11. Among the clouds with a great vertical development is:

Cb – cumulonimbus Cc – cirocumulus Ac – altocumulus

12. How is relative humidity of air affected by changes in the quantity of water vapor contained in it?

It is affected only by temperature. It increases with increasing amounts of water vapor. It is not affected by water vapour amount changes.

13. Dangerous storm phenomena are:

the density of the Cb cloud which consists of liquid and solid state of water. strong updrafts and hight of the Cb could. strong updrafts with maximums in the upper half of CB cloud, stong turbulence, strong downdrafts with maximums near the CB cloudbase, frosts, electric characteristics of the Cb cloud.

14. Which of the following types of cloud is considered middle level clouds in the temperate latitudes?

As, Ac Ns, Ci St, Sc

15. What thunder storms move forward the fastest?

Orographic storms. Mass storms. Frontal storms.

16. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

18. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind.

19. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

20. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

21. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

22. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to locate and identify several landmarks. to focus on one landmark.

23. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

with annual periods. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. depending on the intensity of sunlight.

24. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

25. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

not identical. identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole.

26. Comparative navigation involves:

comparing the calculated times with the reality. comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing terrain with a map and vice versa.

27. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

28. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

dense forest. a lonely tree. a forest road.

29. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud. in rapid uncontrolable rotation.

30. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him.

31. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

32. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

a parking. electric wires. water surface.

33. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost.

34. Airport operations are:

all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area.

35. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

six months. nine months. five months.

36. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

against the sun. from the left. from the right.

37. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground. to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport.

38. The aircraft, that is obliged by the rules to give way to another aircraft, must:

avoided so that the maintained horizontal distance between aircrafts was 300 m. avoided so that the maintained vertical distance between aircrafts was 150 m. avoid by flying above or under or cross the other aircraft flight line at a sufficient distance.

39. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

Yes. No. Not during an airport flight.

40. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the aircraft commander (pilot). the operator. the head of air traffic.

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

stabilised position. forward head tilt. backward head tilt.

44. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil.

45. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective.

46. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid. lay the afflicted in the stabilized position.

47. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient.

48. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body.

49. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The priority of an improvised transport is speed. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport.

50. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions.