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Test - PL A

1. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

does not change. increases. decreases.

2. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing with weight changes. is changing when flying in wind. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same.

3. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing.

4. At the critical angle of attack:

the lift coefficient sharply increases. the drag coefficient drops abruptly. the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly.

5. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in the same direction. the flow of air particles in different directions. when the air particles are not moving.

6. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

In the middle of the glider. At the side parts of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed.

7. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change. changes because effective bearing area is the same. does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change.

8. How the speed system works?

It decreases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. Sometimes it deforms the aerofoil shape. It increases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. It decreases the angle of attack by releasing the rear risers.

9. A certain volume of moist but unsaturated air rises. Which of the following changes?

Absolute humidity. Relative humidity. Mixing ratio.

10. The speed of a thermal current depends on:

instability rate and air warming from the ground surface. time of day and season. uneven heating of cyclonic thermal convective clouds.

11. A prerequisite for the condensation of the saturated water vapor in the troposphere is the presence of condensation nuclei which are:

liquid particles. solid and liquid particles. solid particles.

12. Among the typical local winds belongs the wind called "Föhn":

It blows from the mountains to the valley. It blows especially in vast dry plains in the autumn. It blows from the valley to the mountains.

13. With increasing height, atmospheric pressure:

increases and in the hight of 5.5 km is double of its value at the see level. decreases and in the hight of 5.5 km is a half of its value at the see level. does not change.

14. In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

Solid substance into gas. Liquid into gas. Gas into liquid.

15. Isobars are lines on surface weather maps that connect points:

of the same temperature recalculated to the sea level. of the same pressure recalculated to the sea level. of the same humidity.

16. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased. decreased.

17. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air.

18. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight.

19. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

20. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

21. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

22. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

23. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

indicated air speed. ground speed. true air speed.

24. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation.

25. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. the compass needle free of any interferences. measurements on a map.

26. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

200 km 50 km 20 km

27. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. south west. north west.

28. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

electric wires. a parking. water surface.

29. For emergency landing You would prefer:

trees. buildings. water.

30. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

31. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway.

32. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre.

33. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud. in rapid uncontrolable rotation.

34. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. can be entered but cannot be left.

35. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which received permission for landing approach. which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices. which is landing or in the final approach to the landing.

36. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

valid AIP or ICAO map. ADAC map. official CAA map.

37. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every flight. at a flight outside the airport. at every cross country flight.

38. The minimum age of student for beginning of theoretical and practical paragliding training in the Czech Republic is:

16 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 15 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 14 years with the consent of his legal guardians.

39. TMA (Terminal Control Area)

can be flown under only with a two way radio communication with AFIS. can be flown under. cannot be flown under or over.

40. LAA regulation, which governs the rules of flying a paraglider in the Czech Republic is called:

PL - 2 ZL - 1 ZL - 3

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

43. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always as a priority on any wound or fracture. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger.

44. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

We need to use another compress bandage. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. The tourniquet needs tightening.

45. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration.

46. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection.

47. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet.

48. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

anywhere between the wound and heart. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound.

49. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute.

50. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The priority of an improvised transport is speed.