Check out how you stand with your knowledge to obtain a paragliding pilot's license.
Unsure or don't know the correct answer? Learn everything you need right in our online classroom.
Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing.

2. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the wing arrow and air foil thickness. aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the air foil thickness and special

3. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

sudden increase of descent rate. decrease of steering forces. significant rise of forces in steering lines.

4. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface.

5. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase.

6. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

overpressure. negative pressure. no pressure.

7. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change. changes because effective bearing area is the same. changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change.

8. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

lift and overpressure. lift, mass and drag. the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag.

9. The greatest concentration of condensation nuclei is:

near large urban areas (industrial areas). above mountains. above oceans.

10. In the definition of standard atmosphere the pressure and temperature values at mean sea level are:

1013,25 hPa, 0°C 1013,25 hPa, +15°C 1015 hPa, +10°C

11. Characteristic typical for the troposphere is:

rise of pressure with hight. temperature drop with hight. isothermal stratification.

12. A cold front progresses faster than a warm front, the warm sector at the ground level gradually narrows and the warm air in this region is forced up into the higher layers. This process is called:

cyclone filling. oclusion. cyclone extinction.

13. If a paraglider or powered paraglider pilot sees a Cumulonimbus cloud while flying, he should:

fly around the storm area in a safe distance. land on a suitable landing field as soon as possible. fly under the cloud in a safe vertical distance from its cloud base.

14. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

Sc, Ns Cu, Cb St, Cs

15. Dew point temperature is:

the air temperature in given altitude. the air temperature at the saturation status moment. is the air temperature with determined relative humidity.

16. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

17. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope.

18. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

20. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

22. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

alitude. declination. negative hight, so called dephtines.

23. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic situation. topographic area. map projections.

24. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. identical. not identical.

25. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

against the wind. with the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left.

26. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground.

27. Geographical North and South:

do not change location. change location depending on annual periods. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism.

28. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

29. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

against the wind. with the wind from a side. with the wind.

30. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

31. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

32. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I release the steering continuously.

33. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

34. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

official CAA map. ADAC map. valid AIP or ICAO map.

35. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 125 (3800 m) FL 85 (2600 m) FL 95 (2900 m)

36. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight. the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance.

37. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport.

38. To recalculate a figure in meters into figure in feet we use the simplified formula:

(m : 10) x 3 (m x 3) + 10% (m x 3) : 10

39. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator.

40. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at a flight outside the airport. at every flight. at every cross country flight.

41. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing.

43. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

into a stretcher tied straight branches. the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape. his paragliding harness.

44. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration.

45. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider.

46. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status.

47. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.

48. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority.

49. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

The tourniquet needs tightening. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. We need to use another compress bandage.

50. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection.