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Test - PL A

1. Surface load:

indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight. indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area.

2. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase.

3. Lift is:

the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. an area resistance given by the angle of attack. a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force.

4. Induced drag:

arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft. arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference. arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft.

5. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the speed and drag ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio. the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio.

6. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back. If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord.

7. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

overpressure. no pressure. negative pressure.

8. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

9. What thunder storms move forward the fastest?

Frontal storms. Mass storms. Orographic storms.

10. Frontal fog forms usually on:

worm fronts. II. type cold fronts. stationary fronts.

11. Lentil shaped elongated clouds:

occur mainly in the tropics; in our latitudes they appear rarely in the spring at the sudden change in temperature. indicate strong wind at hight and wind gusts danger. especially in summer indicate coming of a dangerous occluded front.

12. What will be the surface wind characteristics in the area where on the surface meteorological map there are isobars close together?

Strong wind blowing approximately along the isobars. Weak wind blowing along the isobars. Strong wind blowing perpedicularly to the isobars.

13. The boundary between two air masses, with the weather in one air mass significantly differing from the weather in the other air mass is called:

Air masses boundary. Weather boundary. Front.

14. With increasing height, atmospheric pressure:

increases and in the hight of 5.5 km is double of its value at the see level. does not change. decreases and in the hight of 5.5 km is a half of its value at the see level.

15. Which of the following cloud types may reach up into the stratosphere?

Cumulus Cumulonimbus Cirrostratus

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse.

17. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

18. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. increased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.

19. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

20. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering.

21. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

22. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. certain place name. time zone position.

23. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

true air speed. ground speed. indicated air speed.

24. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

negative hight, so called dephtines. alitude. declination.

25. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute.

26. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

perpendicularly to the wind from left. against the wind. with the wind.

27. 045 degrees is direction:

south west. north west. north east.

28. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

29. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

30. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

31. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

32. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. in rapid uncontrolable rotation. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

33. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. release the steering continuously.

34. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

80 degrees. 70 degrees. 60 degrees.

35. Flying above a gathering of people at such a height that would not allow a safe landing in case of danger without endangering pilots or people on the ground is:

possible only at an air show with a valid authorization issued. allowed. forbidden.

36. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the aircraft commander (pilot). the operator. the head of air traffic.

37. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

nine months. five months. six months.

38. The minimum age of student for beginning of theoretical and practical paragliding training in the Czech Republic is:

14 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 15 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 16 years with the consent of his legal guardians.

39. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules.

40. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN.

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing.

43. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment. thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side.

44. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

45. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

the process should be as fast as possible. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation. caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway.

46. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs.

47. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move. we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest. we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery.

48. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. by the lower end of chest bone. in the middle of chest bone.

49. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions.

50. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

forward head tilt. backward head tilt. stabilised position.