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Test - PL A

1. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line.

2. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the air foil thickness and special aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the wing arrow and air foil thickness.

3. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive).

4. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease.

5. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

6. Lift is:

a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force. an area resistance given by the angle of attack. the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile.

7. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

significant rise of forces in steering lines. sudden increase of descent rate. decrease of steering forces.

8. When air flow is laminar:

there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is a relative mix of streamlines. there is no relative mix of streamlines.

9. A prerequisite for the condensation of the saturated water vapor in the troposphere is the presence of condensation nuclei which are:

solid particles. liquid particles. solid and liquid particles.

10. Among the clouds with a great vertical development is:

Ac – altocumulus Cc – cirocumulus Cb – cumulonimbus

11. Wind is:

the horizontal flow (moving) of the air. the vertical air movement. the mixing of air particles.

12. In our latitudes a vertically developed Cb cloud can reaches the height of:

1 km 4 km up to 15 km, or rarely even more.

13. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Frontal fog. Radiation fog. Advection fog.

14. What temperature stratification is favorable for the occurence of vertical motions in the troposphere?

stable indifferent instable

15. Which of clouds forming on the forehead of cold front is the most dangerous for air traffic?

Ns – nimbostratus As – altostratus Cb – cumulonimbus

16. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased. decreased.

17. What does the term „spin” mean?

Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall.

18. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

19. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

20. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

21. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

22. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

50 km 60 km 45 km

23. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

2 hours. There is no difference. 1 hour.

24. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. There is no difference. 1 hour.

25. 045 degrees is direction:

south west. north east. north west.

26. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the magnetic poles. the geological poles. the marine poles.

27. The globe is:

a net of coordinate lines. ideal sphere. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles.

28. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

29. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

30. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

31. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost.

32. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines.

33. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost.

34. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age.

35. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations.

36. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”. always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR. always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR.

37. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right.

38. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

5 km 8 km 1,5 km

39. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud.

40. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

43. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N). to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to wave by any object of red color.

44. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check.

45. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state.

46. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering.

47. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always as a priority on any wound or fracture.

48. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position. The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage.

49. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger.

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration.