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Test - PL A

1. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil.

2. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pushing the speed system. Pulling the steering. Releasing the steering.

3. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span squared and wing surface. is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens.

4. The aircraft falls when:

the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed. it gets over the critical angle of attack. the pilot makes too sharp turn.

5. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

significant rise of forces in steering lines. sudden increase of descent rate. decrease of steering forces.

6. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the air foil thickness and special the wing arrow and air foil thickness. aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape.

7. The optimal gliding ratio can be flown:

with critical angle of attack. with just one angle of attack. with two different angles of attack.

8. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase.

9. Dew point temperature is:

the air temperature at the saturation status moment. the air temperature in given altitude. is the air temperature with determined relative humidity.

10. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is called:

mesosphere. troposphere. stratosphere.

11. The stratification of air in an inversion layer is:

stable. indifferent. unstable.

12. Which basic parameters and phenomena determine the weather inside air masses?

Pressure, clouds and air density. Temperature, humidity, vertical temperature gradient. Precipitations and visibility.

13. There are massive and pronounced Cb - cumulonimbus clouds forming in the area of a athmospheric front. It is a typical manifestation of:

II. type cold front. warm front. warm ocluded front.

14. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Advection fog. Frontal fog. Radiation fog.

15. Among high level clouds are:

St – stratus, Sc – stratocumulus Cc – cirrocumulus, Cs – cirrostratus Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus

16. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

17. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

19. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse.

21. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

22. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground.

23. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in degrees.

24. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic area. topographic situation. map projections.

25. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. not identical. identical.

26. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. measurements on a map. the compass needle free of any interferences.

27. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

28. If I stall the glider:

I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly.

29. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field.

30. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

31. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket and a flare.

32. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

33. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

water surface. a parking. electric wires.

34. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map). in FL 125. in 1500 m AMSL.

35. The aircraft, that is obliged by the rules to give way to another aircraft, must:

avoid by flying above or under or cross the other aircraft flight line at a sufficient distance. avoided so that the maintained horizontal distance between aircrafts was 300 m. avoided so that the maintained vertical distance between aircrafts was 150 m.

36. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically.

37. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud.

38. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

ADAC map. valid AIP or ICAO map. official CAA map.

39. A pilot must always have:

a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.

40. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered but cannot be left. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early.

43. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to wave by any object of red color. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N). to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards.

44. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. the process should be as fast as possible. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation.

45. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease. should be used for taking care of any injury. should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds.

46. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. by the lower end of chest bone. in the middle of chest bone.

47. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

his paragliding harness. into a stretcher tied straight branches. the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape.

48. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective.

49. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body.

50. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection.