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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts.

2. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

3. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pushing the speed system. Releasing the steering. Pulling the steering.

4. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow.

5. The chord is:

the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts. the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil.

6. Surface load:

indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight. indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area.

7. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface. is a relationship between span and air foil thickness.

8. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease.

9. The most common wind direction in the valley caused by thermal effects is:

during the day down the hill. during the night towards the hill. during the day towards the hill.

10. Wind is:

the horizontal flow (moving) of the air. the mixing of air particles. the vertical air movement.

11. The change of physical state water - water vapor is called:

condensation sublimation evaporation

12. The correct ICAO abbreviation of northwest wind is:

SW SE NW

13. Precipitation coming off St-stratus layer of cloud is mostly:

hail. drizzle. violent torrential rain.

14. When climbing through the transition altitude the altimeter setting is changed. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter data?

It will increase. It will not be affected. It will decrease.

15. Coriolis force acting on the wind is:

inertia force causing bodies movement deflection, thus also the air flow. the friction force. the centrifugal force.

16. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

18. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

19. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope.

20. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Five. Three.

21. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

22. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

true air speed. ground speed. indicated air speed.

23. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation.

24. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

alitude. negative hight, so called dephtines. declination.

25. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

those with precise angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles.

26. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to locate and identify several landmarks. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to focus on one landmark.

27. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

map projections. topographic situation. topographic area.

28. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself. pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy.

29. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

30. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

31. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift.

32. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost.

33. For emergency landing You would prefer:

buildings. trees. water.

34. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

8 km 1,5 km 5 km

35. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

be less then 150m. create a collision hazard. restrict the other aircraft.

36. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices. which received permission for landing approach. which is landing or in the final approach to the landing.

37. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility.

38. Restricted air space (LK R):

must be passed through. can be passed through under specified conditions. must not be passed through.

39. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

The course must be kept but speed can be changed. These conditions must not be changed. This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision.

40. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

the airport altitude AMSL. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere. 0.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

42. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents.

43. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery. the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move. we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest.

44. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“

45. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The priority of an improvised transport is speed. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport.

46. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute.

47. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection.

48. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture.

49. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider.

50. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil.