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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. In a normal steady flight:

there is overpressure on the upper and lower surface of the wing. there is overpressure on the upper surface and negative pressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is negative pressure on the upper surface and overpressure on the lower surface of the wing.

2. The induced drag can be reduced by:

aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the wing arrow and air foil thickness. the air foil thickness and special

3. The aircraft falls when:

it gets over the critical angle of attack. the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed. the pilot makes too sharp turn.

4. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil.

5. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing.

6. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force. the weight of the aircraft and lift. the drag and the gravity force.

7. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

decreases. increases. does not change.

8. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the chord. always upwards from the aerofoil.

9. Which of the following processes in the air layer may lead to the formation of cumulus and cumulonimbus cloudiness?

Stable air layers lifting on frontal boundary. Subsidence. Convection.

10. Which of the phenomena occurring on the II. kind cold front are particularly dangerous for low-flying aircraft?

Drop of cloud base, sometimes even to the ground. High pressure and temperature drop. Strong turbulence limited to the narrow space of vortex - the microburst, with axis approximately at the base of Cb - cumulonimbus cloud.

11. Mass storms occur:

mostly in the afternoon and evening in the hours of the highest ground temperatures. anytime. mostly during the night.

12. The speed of a thermal current depends on:

instability rate and air warming from the ground surface. uneven heating of cyclonic thermal convective clouds. time of day and season.

13. The boundary between two air masses, with the weather in one air mass significantly differing from the weather in the other air mass is called:

Air masses boundary. Front. Weather boundary.

14. Increasing distance between isobars means that in the given area the air velocity will be:

slower. the distance between isobars tells nothing about the air velocity. faster.

15. The decrease of temperature with altitude in a standard atmosphere definition - vertical temperature gradient - has a value of:

1,0° C / 100 m. 0,6° C / 100 m. 0,65° C / 100 m.

16. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

17. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Seven. Five.

18. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

19. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

20. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

21. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

22. 045 degrees is direction:

north west. south west. north east.

23. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

24. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. those with precise angles.

25. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

Moscow. Paris. London.

26. Geographical meridian is:

a circle around the globe. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a half of meridian circle.

27. Geographical North and South:

change location depending on annual periods. do not change location. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism.

28. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

wait until the glider stops itself. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. pull the A risers or lines.

29. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

30. After a tall tree landing:

you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed. you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.) you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK.

31. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn.

32. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

33. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

a parking. water surface. electric wires.

34. A pilot must always have:

a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation. a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.

35. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Only in clouds. No. Yes.

36. The minimum age of student for beginning of theoretical and practical paragliding training in the Czech Republic is:

15 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 16 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 14 years with the consent of his legal guardians.

37. What is it CTR?

Control zone of an airport. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden. Terminal controlled area.

38. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight above the ground level. the hight according the local atmospheric pressure. the hight above the see level.

39. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations.

40. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. the upper limit of the G class air space. a specified altitude.

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents.

43. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

forward head tilt. backward head tilt. stabilised position.

44. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to wave by any object of red color. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N).

45. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status.

46. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen.

47. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage. lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle. put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage.

48. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture.

49. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

1210 155 112

50. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the body in extended position. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage.