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Test - PL A

1. When air flow is laminar:

there is no relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is a relative mix of streamlines.

2. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

3. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts.

4. How the speed system works?

It increases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. It decreases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. Sometimes it deforms the aerofoil shape. It decreases the angle of attack by releasing the rear risers.

5. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the speed and drag ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio.

6. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

lift and drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift. gravity force and lift plus drag.

7. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag.

8. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy. changes of the size of projected area of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy.

9. The most common wind direction in the valley caused by thermal effects is:

during the day towards the hill. during the day down the hill. during the night towards the hill.

10. What are the other two conditions, besides forces causing air lift, necessary for the creation of a thunderstorm?

Unstable conditions and low air pressure. Unstable conditions and high air humidity. Stable conditions and high air pressure.

11. The main cause of atmospheric convection is:

sufficient air heating on the earth's surface during unstable stratification. uneven heating of the earth's surface of different colors. the day and night temperature difference.

12. The part of cyclone between the warm and cold fronts is called:

the ridge of higher pressure. the warm sector. the front line.

13. Hazardous phenomena associated with a I. kind cold front are usually:

Only low level clouds of stratiform types. strong gusty surface wind. Cb - cumulonimbus clouds at the head of the front hidden in low stratiform clouds, turbulence and icing.

14. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the greatest:

in the temperate zones. over the equatorial regions. over the poles.

15. Clouds in troposphere form from:

Oxygen. Nitrogen. water vapor.

16. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

18. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope.

19. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

20. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

21. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

22. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. south west. north west.

23. Geographical North and South:

do not change location. change location depending on annual periods. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism.

24. 045 degrees is direction:

north west. north east. south west.

25. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Paris. Moscow.

26. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. clockwise. counterclockwise.

27. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

negative hight, so called dephtines. declination. alitude.

28. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the A risers or lines. wait until the glider stops itself. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers.

29. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field.

30. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

31. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost.

32. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated.

33. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

34. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight.

35. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 95 (2900 m) FL 125 (3800 m) FL 85 (2600 m)

36. If two aircrafts are flying on lines facing each other or approximately such, each of them should give way by changing its course to the:

left. side which is more suitable for avoiding a crash. right.

37. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

8 km 5 km 1,5 km

38. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

from sunset to sunrise. only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority. in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset.

39. A pilot must always have:

a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation.

40. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain.

44. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the body in extended position.

45. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture.

46. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage. The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back.

47. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection.

48. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

in the middle of chest bone. next to left nipple. by the lower end of chest bone.

49. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil.

50. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger.