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Test - PL A

1. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

significant rise of forces in steering lines. sudden increase of descent rate. decrease of steering forces.

2. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

3. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider. the weight and lift ratio. the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed.

4. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag. parasitic drag and supportive drag. parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag.

5. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients). total weight. the velocity of flow.

6. The optimal gliding ratio can be flown:

with two different angles of attack. with just one angle of attack. with critical angle of attack.

7. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it will fly 1 km in 10 s. it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground.

8. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end.

9. What ground level weather is usually associated with a permanent area of high pressure over the mainland in winter?

Fog tendency and low St-type cloudiness. Ns cloudiness with permanent rain. Thunderstorms.

10. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts. Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing. Persistent rainfall.

11. Which of these cloud species belong among clouds of crystal composition?

Cc - cirocumulus, Cs - cirostratus Cb - cumulonimbus, Ac - altocumulus Ns - nimbostratus, As - altostratus

12. Characteristic typical for the troposphere is:

isothermal stratification. rise of pressure with hight. temperature drop with hight.

13. Humidity means:

snowing the amount of water vapor in the air precipitation fall

14. Stationary front is the one that:

is moving in leaps. is moving only clockwise. is not moving or moves very slowly.

15. Precipitation zone of a warm front is:

mostly right after the front line and it is showers. at the front line and it is short rainfall. before the front line and it is persistent rainfall.

16. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

17. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers.

18. Spiral is performed by:

weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

19. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

20. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake.

22. 225 degrees is direction:

north west. south east. south west.

23. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. those with precise angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale.

24. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

depending on the intensity of sunlight. with annual periods. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth.

25. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

26. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to focus on one landmark. to locate and identify several landmarks. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft.

27. The prime meridian is:

a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England.

28. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

29. After a tall tree landing:

you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK. you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.) you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed.

30. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface.

31. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide.

32. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute.

33. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

34. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight according the local atmospheric pressure. the hight above the see level. the hight above the ground level.

35. Restricted air space (LK R):

must be passed through. can be passed through under specified conditions. must not be passed through.

36. TMA (Terminal Control Area)

can be flown under only with a two way radio communication with AFIS. can be flown under. cannot be flown under or over.

37. The aircraft, that is obliged by the rules to give way to another aircraft, must:

avoided so that the maintained vertical distance between aircrafts was 150 m. avoid by flying above or under or cross the other aircraft flight line at a sufficient distance. avoided so that the maintained horizontal distance between aircrafts was 300 m.

38. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight.

39. A light aircraft can be steered by:

a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid assessment on medical fitness or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a person authorized by the light aircraft operator in the presence of the pilot, or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum.

40. What is it CTR?

Terminal controlled area. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden. Control zone of an airport.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. The telephone number of medical emergency service in the Czech Republic is:

158 150 155

44. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen.

45. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the body in extended position. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage.

46. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check.

47. The best way of use of the „anti-shock” foil (thermal blanket) is:

The afflicted is tightly wraped into it including head, only face is uncovered. The afflicted is carefully covered with it. It is laid under the afflicted.

48. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond. after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect.

49. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease. should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds. should be used for taking care of any injury.

50. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help. We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services.