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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients). the velocity of flow. total weight.

2. Surface load:

indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight. indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area.

3. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km.

4. The aircraft falls when:

it gets over the critical angle of attack. the pilot makes too sharp turn. the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed.

5. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

The lift is evenly distributed. In the middle of the glider. At the side parts of the glider.

6. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end.

7. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag.

8. Turbulent flow is:

when the air particles are not moving. the flow of air particles in different directions. the flow of air particles in the same direction.

9. Which of the following types of cloud is considered low level cloud?

As Ns St

10. The stratification of air in an inversion layer is:

unstable. stable. indifferent.

11. Unsaturated adiabatic curve is showing the change in temperature with height of value:

0,65 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,60 °C / 100 m of hight. 1,00 °C / 100 m of hight.

12. Saturated adiabatic curve is showing the change in temperature with height of value:

1,00 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,60 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,65 °C / 100 m of hight.

13. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing. Persistent rainfall. Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts.

14. Which of the phenomena occurring on the II. kind cold front are particularly dangerous for low-flying aircraft?

Strong turbulence limited to the narrow space of vortex - the microburst, with axis approximately at the base of Cb - cumulonimbus cloud. Drop of cloud base, sometimes even to the ground. High pressure and temperature drop.

15. Low level cloud can be:

Ci – cirrus Ac – altocumulus St – stratus

16. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

17. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

18. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

20. What does the term „spin” mean?

A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall.

21. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

22. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation.

23. 045 degrees is direction:

south west. north east. north west.

24. 225 degrees is direction:

south west. north west. south east.

25. Comparative navigation involves:

comparing terrain with a map and vice versa. comparing the calculated times with the reality. comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map.

26. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to focus on one landmark. to locate and identify several landmarks. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft.

27. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. those with precise angles.

28. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field.

29. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre.

30. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

31. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I release the steering continuously.

32. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

water surface. electric wires. a parking.

33. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn.

34. The aircraft, that is obliged by the rules to give way to another aircraft, must:

avoided so that the maintained horizontal distance between aircrafts was 300 m. avoided so that the maintained vertical distance between aircrafts was 150 m. avoid by flying above or under or cross the other aircraft flight line at a sufficient distance.

35. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight. the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance.

36. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator.

37. If two aircrafts are flying on lines facing each other or approximately such, each of them should give way by changing its course to the:

right. side which is more suitable for avoiding a crash. left.

38. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground.

39. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

40. Except for takeoff or landing, or except by permit issued by the Aviation Authority, a VFR flight must be conducted over the congested areas or gathering of people in the open air at a height that may not be less than:

300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft. 150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage.

44. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„The tourniquet must hurt.“ „If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“

45. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

46. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage.

47. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation. the process should be as fast as possible.

48. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger. If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider.

49. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2.

50. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always as a priority on any wound or fracture. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures.