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Test - PL A

1. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

2. At the critical angle of attack:

the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly. the lift coefficient sharply increases. the drag coefficient drops abruptly.

3. Surface load:

indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight.

4. Larger part of lift is generated:

above 2/3 of the aerofoil, around 55%. above the aerofoil, around 2/3. below the aerofoil, around 2/3.

5. The angle of attack is:

the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow. the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line.

6. The main cause of the stall is always:

decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight. exceeding the critical angle of attack. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider.

7. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

Yes. Only for tail wind. No.

8. When air flow is laminar:

there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is a relative mix of streamlines. there is no relative mix of streamlines.

9. What type of precipitation can be expected on an active cold front?

Light persistent rain. Showers and thunderstorms. Drizzle.

10. The beginning of thunder storm is characterized by:

rain on the earth's surface. persistent ascending currents. frequent lightning.

11. Increasing distance between isobars means that in the given area the air velocity will be:

faster. the distance between isobars tells nothing about the air velocity. slower.

12. Which type of precipitation comes off water only containing clouds at mid-latitudes?

Intensive rain. Drizzle. Light rain with big drops.

13. At what altitude the barometric pressure reaches about a half the pressure to the mean sea level?

7000 m MSL 5500 m MSL 3000 m MSL

14. Precipitation falling out of the cloud systems of significant warm fronts are mainly:

occasional rainfall. showers. persistent rainfall.

15. Frontal fog forms usually on:

II. type cold fronts. worm fronts. stationary fronts.

16. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

17. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. always the same.

18. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight.

19. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

20. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

21. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

22. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic area. topographic situation. map projections.

23. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

24. The prime meridian is:

meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0.

25. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

alitude. negative hight, so called dephtines. declination.

26. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

60 km 45 km 50 km

27. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

perpendicularly to the wind from left. against the wind. with the wind.

28. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

29. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway.

30. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field.

31. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

water surface. a parking. electric wires.

32. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated.

33. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

34. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

150 m except for ridge soaring. 300 m 150 m

35. What is it CTR?

Terminal controlled area. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden. Control zone of an airport.

36. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the aircraft commander (pilot). the head of air traffic. the operator.

37. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service.

38. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR. by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”. always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR.

39. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at flights outside the airport. with them at every flight. with them at cross country flights.

40. The aircraft, that is obliged by the rules to give way to another aircraft, must:

avoided so that the maintained horizontal distance between aircrafts was 300 m. avoided so that the maintained vertical distance between aircrafts was 150 m. avoid by flying above or under or cross the other aircraft flight line at a sufficient distance.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute.

44. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage.

45. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position). If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain. If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it.

46. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side. convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment.

47. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. The priority of an improvised transport is speed. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance.

48. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen.

49. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

50. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body. the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness.