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Test - PL A

1. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

overpressure. negative pressure. no pressure.

2. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest.

3. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

4 kg/m3 0.25 kg/m3 0.4 kg/m3

4. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

lift, mass and drag. lift and overpressure. the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag.

5. At the critical angle of attack:

the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly. the lift coefficient sharply increases. the drag coefficient drops abruptly.

6. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

increases. does not change. decreases.

7. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

increases. decreases. stays the same.

8. The lift on the aerofoil:

is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing.

9. At what altitude the barometric pressure reaches about a half the pressure to the mean sea level?

7000 m MSL 3000 m MSL 5500 m MSL

10. In meteorology, storm is:

the most significant manifestation of convection in the free atmosphere. a natural phenomenon accompanied by intensive rainfall and electrical discharges. a phenomenon identical with the term "cold front”.

11. The change of physical state water - water vapor is called:

evaporation condensation sublimation

12. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the greatest:

in the temperate zones. over the poles. over the equatorial regions.

13. Precipitation coming off St-stratus layer of cloud is mostly:

hail. violent torrential rain. drizzle.

14. The decrease of temperature with altitude in a standard atmosphere definition - vertical temperature gradient - has a value of:

1,0° C / 100 m. 0,65° C / 100 m. 0,6° C / 100 m.

15. Which of the phenomena occurring on the II. kind cold front are particularly dangerous for low-flying aircraft?

High pressure and temperature drop. Drop of cloud base, sometimes even to the ground. Strong turbulence limited to the narrow space of vortex - the microburst, with axis approximately at the base of Cb - cumulonimbus cloud.

16. Spiral is performed by:

weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

17. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Five. Seven.

19. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

21. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

22. 225 degrees is direction:

north west. south west. south east.

23. The globe is:

a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. a net of coordinate lines. ideal sphere.

24. The prime meridian is:

a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England.

25. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

indicated air speed. true air speed. ground speed.

26. The horizontal velocity is given:

in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in feet. in knots.

27. Magnetic course is measured:

from bearing indicator. from prime meridian. from geographical north of local meridian.

28. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

29. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

against the wind. with the wind. with the wind from a side.

30. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. wait until the glider stops itself. pull the A risers or lines.

31. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes.

32. If I stall the glider:

I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly.

33. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud. in rapid uncontrolable rotation.

34. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

No. Only in clouds. Yes.

35. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service.

36. The paraglider canopy is damaged mostly by:

storage in dark and dry rooms. mice and other wild rodents. UV rays, mechanical abrasion and humidity.

37. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a sport pilot and a PG instructor. a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training.

38. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

against the sun. from the right. from the left.

39. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight. The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety.

40. What is it CTR?

An air space where VFR flights are forbidden. Control zone of an airport. Terminal controlled area.

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond.

44. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„The tourniquet must hurt.“ „If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“

45. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. by the lower end of chest bone. in the middle of chest bone.

46. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the body in extended position.

47. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always as a priority on any wound or fracture. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger.

48. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body. placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident.

49. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

1210 155 112

50. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs.