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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force.

2. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

increases. does not change. decreases.

3. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end.

4. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag.

5. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

increases. decreases. stays the same.

6. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

7. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag. parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. parasitic drag and supportive drag.

8. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the weight and lift ratio. the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider. the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed.

9. A prerequisite for the condensation of the saturated water vapor in the troposphere is the presence of condensation nuclei which are:

solid and liquid particles. solid particles. liquid particles.

10. The decrease of temperature with altitude in a standard atmosphere definition - vertical temperature gradient - has a value of:

1,0° C / 100 m. 0,6° C / 100 m. 0,65° C / 100 m.

11. The form of precipitation falling out of vertically developed cloud type Cb - cumulonimbus is mostly:

rain and hail. drizzle. light rain.

12. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Radiation fog. Frontal fog. Advection fog.

13. Dew point temperature is:

the air temperature at the saturation status moment. the air temperature in given altitude. is the air temperature with determined relative humidity.

14. We talk about stable air mass if following applies:

There is convection forming in the air. There are unfavorable conditions for ascending currents formation. There are favorable conditions for ascending currents formation.

15. The air mass is called unstable if there are:

stratified clouds in it. convective vertical motions in it. inversions in it.

16. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

17. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

18. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers.

19. The take off control includes:

the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing.

20. When entering a thermal current:

the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

21. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

22. Comparative navigation involves:

comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing the calculated times with the reality. comparing terrain with a map and vice versa.

23. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

negative hight, so called dephtines. declination. alitude.

24. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

25. Magnetic course is measured:

from prime meridian. from geographical north of local meridian. from bearing indicator.

26. Direction south is reported by:

180° 360° 090°

27. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. those with precise angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale.

28. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences.

29. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers.

30. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs.

31. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

32. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

33. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift.

34. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age.

35. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground.

36. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered but cannot be left. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h.

37. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

Yes. Not during an airport flight. No.

38. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment

39. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight above the ground level. the hight above the see level. the hight according the local atmospheric pressure.

40. A light aircraft can be steered by:

a pilot who holds a valid assessment on medical fitness or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a person authorized by the light aircraft operator in the presence of the pilot, or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider.

44. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions only.

45. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority.

46. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. the process should be as fast as possible. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation.

47. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly.

48. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status).

49. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

First we try to free the airway. We promptly transport him to the professional medical service. We start the resuscitation immediately.

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.