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Test - PL A

1. The lift on the aerofoil:

is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing.

2. A paraglider stall occures when:

the glider overcomes the pilot when taking off. the speed system is pushed too fast. the pilot breaks too much.

3. Induced drag:

arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference. arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft. arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft.

4. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pushing the speed system. Releasing the steering. Pulling the steering.

5. The induced drag can be reduced by:

aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the air foil thickness and special the wing arrow and air foil thickness.

6. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord. If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back.

7. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

lift and overpressure. the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag. lift, mass and drag.

8. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase.

9. Dangerous storm phenomena are:

the density of the Cb cloud which consists of liquid and solid state of water. strong updrafts and hight of the Cb could. strong updrafts with maximums in the upper half of CB cloud, stong turbulence, strong downdrafts with maximums near the CB cloudbase, frosts, electric characteristics of the Cb cloud.

10. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the greatest:

over the equatorial regions. over the poles. in the temperate zones.

11. Which of clouds forming on the forehead of cold front is the most dangerous for air traffic?

Cb – cumulonimbus As – altostratus Ns – nimbostratus

12. During summer in Central Europe, in the central part of a significant anticyclone we expect:

clear skies, strong winds, cold at night, warm at daytime and strong thermics. mostly sunny, light wind, high temperatures duding a day, weakening thermics. inversion fog, variable wind, night thunderstorms and strong thermics during a day.

13. A cold front progresses faster than a warm front, the warm sector at the ground level gradually narrows and the warm air in this region is forced up into the higher layers. This process is called:

cyclone extinction. oclusion. cyclone filling.

14. The low pressure system - Cyclone - is the area:

where the atmospheric pressure is decreasing outwards. of low atmospheric pressure with the minimum value in its middle. of low atmospheric pressure with the minimum value on its bordes.

15. Isobars are lines on surface weather maps that connect points:

of the same pressure recalculated to the sea level. of the same humidity. of the same temperature recalculated to the sea level.

16. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

17. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Seven. Three.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

21. Spiral is performed by:

weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

22. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the marine poles. the magnetic poles. the geological poles.

23. Geographical North and South:

do not change location. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. change location depending on annual periods.

24. The globe is:

ideal sphere. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. a net of coordinate lines.

25. The prime meridian is:

meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0.

26. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

Moscow. London. Paris.

27. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

measurements on a map. the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. the compass needle free of any interferences.

28. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy. weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself.

29. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn.

30. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines.

31. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

dense forest. a forest road. a lonely tree.

32. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost.

33. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

34. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. the upper limit of the G class air space. a specified altitude.

35. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules.

36. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

8 km 1,5 km 5 km

37. Restricted air space (LK R):

can be passed through under specified conditions. must not be passed through. must be passed through.

38. Except for takeoff or landing, or except by permit issued by the Aviation Authority, a VFR flight must be conducted over the congested areas or gathering of people in the open air at a height that may not be less than:

300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft. 150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

39. The minimum age of student for beginning of theoretical and practical paragliding training in the Czech Republic is:

14 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 15 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 16 years with the consent of his legal guardians.

40. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which received permission for landing approach. which is landing or in the final approach to the landing. which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

43. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position). If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it. If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain.

44. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body.

45. "Gasping breaths" mean:

individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction.

46. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

stabilised position. forward head tilt. backward head tilt.

47. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions.

48. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

lay the afflicted in the stabilized position. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid. free the airway by backward head tilt.

49. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

into a stretcher tied straight branches. the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape. his paragliding harness.

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute.