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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

parasitic drag and supportive drag. parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag.

2. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase.

3. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

the velocity of flow. total weight. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients).

4. The resultant aerodynamic force consists of:

lift and drag. lift and weight. lift coefficient and weight.

5. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

6. The lift coefficient is influenced the most by:

the air foil thickness. the speed of flow. the air foil curving.

7. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

No. Yes. Only for tail wind.

8. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

negative pressure. overpressure. no pressure.

9. The correct ICAO abbreviation of northwest wind is:

NW SE SW

10. Unsaturated adiabatic curve is showing the change in temperature with height of value:

1,00 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,65 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,60 °C / 100 m of hight.

11. Which of clouds forming on the forehead of cold front is the most dangerous for air traffic?

As – altostratus Cb – cumulonimbus Ns – nimbostratus

12. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the lowest:

above poles. above Equator areas. in temperate zones.

13. A certain volume of moist but unsaturated air rises. Which of the following changes?

Mixing ratio. Absolute humidity. Relative humidity.

14. What weather conditions are expected in temperate latitudes over land in summer in the middle of a stationary area of high pressure?

Ns clouds. Weak winds, haze. Thunderstorms, clear air and strong winds.

15. The air mass is called unstable if there are:

convective vertical motions in it. inversions in it. stratified clouds in it.

16. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse.

18. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

19. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

21. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

22. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the geological poles. the magnetic poles. the marine poles.

23. 045 degrees is direction:

north east. north west. south west.

24. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. 2 hours. There is no difference.

25. Geographical meridian is:

a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a half of meridian circle. a circle around the globe.

26. Magnetic course is measured:

from bearing indicator. from prime meridian. from geographical north of local meridian.

27. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

not identical. identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole.

28. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare.

29. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position.

30. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud. in rapid uncontrolable rotation.

31. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him.

32. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. dense forest. a lonely tree.

33. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to turn the glider against the wind.

34. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

nine months. six months. five months.

35. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment

36. In G class airspace there is:

a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL. no request of connection. a request of permanent two way connection.

37. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

from the right. from the left. against the sun.

38. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

The course must be kept but speed can be changed. These conditions must not be changed. This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision.

39. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

outside the clouds and in visibility of ground. at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud.

40. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight. the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious. First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help. Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are.

44. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond.

45. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We start the resuscitation immediately. First we try to free the airway. We promptly transport him to the professional medical service.

46. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case.

47. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

timely starting and continuity of compressions. the highest possible frequency of compressions. the deepest compressions.

48. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2.

49. The helmet of the afflicted:

must never be taken off. should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck. should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting.

50. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.