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Test - PL A

1. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase.

2. Turbulent flow is:

when the air particles are not moving. the flow of air particles in different directions. the flow of air particles in the same direction.

3. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

lift and drag. gravity force and lift plus drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift.

4. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the weight and lift ratio. the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed. the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider.

5. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive).

6. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the drag and the gravity force. the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force. the weight of the aircraft and lift.

7. Induced drag:

arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft. arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference. arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft.

8. The main cause of the stall is always:

exceeding the critical angle of attack. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider. decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight.

9. Among high level clouds are:

Cc – cirrocumulus, Cs – cirrostratus Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus St – stratus, Sc – stratocumulus

10. Which basic parameters and phenomena determine the weather inside air masses?

Pressure, clouds and air density. Precipitations and visibility. Temperature, humidity, vertical temperature gradient.

11. A passing cold front with active storm manifestations is reflected by:

temperature decrease, strong athmopheric pressure decrease followed by its increase, strong wind speed increase with gusts. a temperature decrease later followed by its increase, no change in athmospheric pressure, wind fading. no change in temperature, slight pressure decrease and slight wind speed decrease without gusts.

12. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Persistent rainfall. Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing. Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts.

13. What are the characteristic signs of the weather on the leeward side of the mountains during Fohn?

Variable cloudiness and occasional rain, moderate or no wind. Few clouds, unusual increase of temperature, low humidity, often strong winds. Overcast, precipitation, good visibility.

14. The stratification of air in an inversion layer is:

unstable. indifferent. stable.

15. The boundary between two air masses, with the weather in one air mass significantly differing from the weather in the other air mass is called:

Weather boundary. Front. Air masses boundary.

16. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse.

17. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

18. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. always the same.

19. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

20. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

21. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased. increased.

22. Course is measured in degrees from north:

counterclockwise. clockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west.

23. Geographical North and South:

are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. do not change location. change location depending on annual periods.

24. Geographical meridian is:

a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a half of meridian circle. a circle around the globe.

25. The globe is:

a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. a net of coordinate lines. ideal sphere.

26. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Paris. Moscow.

27. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

28. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind. against the wind. with the wind from a side.

29. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

30. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

31. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind.

32. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him.

33. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences.

34. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

official CAA map. valid AIP or ICAO map. ADAC map.

35. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 95 (2900 m) FL 85 (2600 m) FL 125 (3800 m)

36. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight.

37. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations.

38. A pilot must always have:

a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation.

39. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight. the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance.

40. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

80 degrees. 60 degrees. 70 degrees.

41. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to wave by any object of red color. to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N).

44. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

a position that the afflicted person wants to take. the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„ a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position).

45. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the body in extended position. hanging in a triangular bandage.

46. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

timely starting and continuity of compressions. the highest possible frequency of compressions. the deepest compressions.

47. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body. placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight.

48. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.

49. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

into a stretcher tied straight branches. his paragliding harness. the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape.

50. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body.