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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

decreases. increases. stays the same.

2. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio. the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the speed and drag ratio.

3. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag.

4. The separation of streamlines is when:

the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape. turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow. the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil.

5. The optimal gliding ratio can be flown:

with two different angles of attack. with just one angle of attack. with critical angle of attack.

6. Surface load:

indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight.

7. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts.

8. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the chord. always upwards from the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil.

9. What prevents the air flow from areas of high pressure directly into the area of low air pressure?

The Coriolis force. Friction on the earth's surface. The force caused by the pressure gradient.

10. We call it unstable stratification when in unsaturated air:

an unsaturated particle stops at a level at which external force has ceased to act. an unsaturated air particle as it exits from the equilibrium position continues to climb even when the external force ceases to act. an unsaturated particle, after removal of the external force, returns to its original position.

11. The most common wind direction in the valley caused by thermal effects is:

during the day towards the hill. during the day down the hill. during the night towards the hill.

12. At what altitude the barometric pressure reaches about a half the pressure to the mean sea level?

5500 m MSL 7000 m MSL 3000 m MSL

13. Thermal turbulence originates:

in air heated by the ground in unstable air conditions. in a hilly terrain. in uneven heating of the Earth surface.

14. In the definition of standard atmosphere the pressure and temperature values at mean sea level are:

1013,25 hPa, 0°C 1013,25 hPa, +15°C 1015 hPa, +10°C

15. Which of the following processes in the air layer may lead to the formation of cumulus and cumulonimbus cloudiness?

Stable air layers lifting on frontal boundary. Subsidence. Convection.

16. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake.

18. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

19. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased.

20. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse.

21. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight.

22. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

23. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the geological poles. the magnetic poles. the marine poles.

24. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground.

25. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

true air speed. indicated air speed. ground speed.

26. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

50 km 45 km 60 km

27. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. measurements on a map. the compass needle free of any interferences.

28. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. using the reserve parachute.

29. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

dense forest. a lonely tree. a forest road.

30. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

31. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind.

32. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide.

33. After a tall tree landing:

you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.) you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK. you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed.

34. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map). in FL 125. in 1500 m AMSL.

35. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

0. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere. the airport altitude AMSL.

36. Restricted air space (LK R):

must be passed through. must not be passed through. can be passed through under specified conditions.

37. Except for takeoff or landing, or except by permit issued by the Aviation Authority, a VFR flight must be conducted over the congested areas or gathering of people in the open air at a height that may not be less than:

300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

38. What is it CTR?

Terminal controlled area. Control zone of an airport. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden.

39. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

The course must be kept but speed can be changed. This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision. These conditions must not be changed.

40. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

First we try to free the airway. We start the resuscitation immediately. We promptly transport him to the professional medical service.

44. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs.

45. The helmet of the afflicted:

must never be taken off. should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck. should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting.

46. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check. 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions).

47. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case.

48. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective.

49. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are. If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious. First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help.

50. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain.