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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing when flying in wind. is changing with weight changes. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same.

2. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. parasitic drag and supportive drag. form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag.

3. At the critical angle of attack:

the lift coefficient sharply increases. the drag coefficient drops abruptly. the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly.

4. In a normal steady flight:

there is negative pressure on the upper surface and overpressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is overpressure on the upper surface and negative pressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is overpressure on the upper and lower surface of the wing.

5. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km.

6. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord. If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back.

7. The chord is:

the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts. the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil.

8. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

0.4 kg/m3 4 kg/m3 0.25 kg/m3

9. What weather conditions are expected in temperate latitudes over land in summer in the middle of a stationary area of high pressure?

Ns clouds. Weak winds, haze. Thunderstorms, clear air and strong winds.

10. Thermal turbulence originates:

in uneven heating of the Earth surface. in air heated by the ground in unstable air conditions. in a hilly terrain.

11. Precipitation zone of a warm front is:

mostly right after the front line and it is showers. at the front line and it is short rainfall. before the front line and it is persistent rainfall.

12. Coriolis force acting on the wind is:

the centrifugal force. inertia force causing bodies movement deflection, thus also the air flow. the friction force.

13. Cooling speed of rising air saturated with water vapor is less than of unsaturated air because:

condensation releases heat. water vapor absorbs heat radiated by air. water vapor is not cooled as fast as dry air.

14. The air density of the atmosphere with altitude:

decreases. increases. doesn't change.

15. Which of the layers of Earth's atmosphere is characterized by vertical movements?

Tropopause. Stratosphere. Troposphere.

16. What does the term „spin” mean?

A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

18. Spiral is performed by:

weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Three. Five.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

21. The take off control includes:

the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing.

22. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic area. topographic situation. map projections.

23. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain. accurate watch. accurate compass.

24. The horizontal velocity is given:

in knots. in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in feet.

25. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. not identical.

26. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

50 km 200 km 20 km

27. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. There is no difference. 1 hour.

28. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight.

29. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

30. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

31. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

electric wires. water surface. a parking.

32. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide.

33. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. a lonely tree. dense forest.

34. Except for takeoff or landing, or except by permit issued by the Aviation Authority, a VFR flight must be conducted over the congested areas or gathering of people in the open air at a height that may not be less than:

300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft.

35. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

1,5 km 5 km 8 km

36. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight.

37. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered but cannot be left. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h.

38. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground. at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically.

39. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR.

40. From a sport aircraft (SLZ) it is forbidden:

to spray. to drop things between sunrise and sunset. to drop anything or spray, except under certain conditions.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. "Gasping breaths" mean:

individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction.

44. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain.

45. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient.

46. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

anywhere between the wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart.

47. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“

48. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The priority of an improvised transport is speed.

49. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2.

50. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position). a position that the afflicted person wants to take. the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„