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Test - PL A

1. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

At the side parts of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed. In the middle of the glider.

2. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back. The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord.

3. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

4. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy. changes of the size of projected area of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy.

5. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight.

6. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease.

7. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

increases. does not change. decreases.

8. The aircraft falls when:

the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed. it gets over the critical angle of attack. the pilot makes too sharp turn.

9. What weather conditions are expected in temperate latitudes over land in summer in the middle of a stationary area of high pressure?

Ns clouds. Weak winds, haze. Thunderstorms, clear air and strong winds.

10. Wind is:

the horizontal flow (moving) of the air. the mixing of air particles. the vertical air movement.

11. We call it unstable stratification when in unsaturated air:

an unsaturated particle, after removal of the external force, returns to its original position. an unsaturated particle stops at a level at which external force has ceased to act. an unsaturated air particle as it exits from the equilibrium position continues to climb even when the external force ceases to act.

12. Wind significantly affects air traffic:

in all its stages. during landing and takeoff, but not in flight at flight level. only in flight at flight level.

13. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the greatest:

over the poles. in the temperate zones. over the equatorial regions.

14. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

persistent rainfall. drizzle. strong showers.

15. Which types of clouds are typical for a warm front cloud system:

Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cb – cumulonimbus Ns – nimbostratus, As – altostratus, Cs – cirostratus Sc – stratocumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cc – cirocumulus

16. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

17. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Five. Three.

19. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

20. What does the term „spin” mean?

Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral.

21. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

22. Comparative navigation involves:

comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing the calculated times with the reality. comparing terrain with a map and vice versa.

23. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

24. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

45 km 60 km 50 km

25. Magnetic course is measured:

from prime meridian. from bearing indicator. from geographical north of local meridian.

26. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain. accurate compass.

27. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to focus on one landmark. to locate and identify several landmarks. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft.

28. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. wait until the glider stops itself. pull the A risers or lines.

29. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. in rapid uncontrolable rotation. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

30. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind. against the wind. with the wind from a side.

31. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

32. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I release the steering continuously.

33. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself. weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy.

34. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Yes. Only in clouds. No.

35. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety. The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight.

36. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules.

37. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

nine months. six months. five months.

38. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

official CAA map. ADAC map. valid AIP or ICAO map.

39. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN.

40. What is it CTR?

Terminal controlled area. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden. Control zone of an airport.

41. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid.

44. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services. We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help.

45. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The priority of an improvised transport is speed. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance.

46. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

47. "Gasping breaths" mean:

individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction.

48. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds. are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease. should be used for taking care of any injury.

49. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection.

50. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions.