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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

2. The chord is:

the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts. the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil.

3. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases.

4. A paraglider stall occures when:

the pilot breaks too much. the speed system is pushed too fast. the glider overcomes the pilot when taking off.

5. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in different directions. the flow of air particles in the same direction. when the air particles are not moving.

6. The lift on the aerofoil:

is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil.

7. The separation of streamlines is when:

turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow. the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil. the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape.

8. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing with weight changes. is changing when flying in wind. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same.

9. Mass storms occur:

mostly during the night. mostly in the afternoon and evening in the hours of the highest ground temperatures. anytime.

10. Which of these cloud species belong among clouds of crystal composition?

Cc - cirocumulus, Cs - cirostratus Ns - nimbostratus, As - altostratus Cb - cumulonimbus, Ac - altocumulus

11. We talk about stable air mass if following applies:

There are favorable conditions for ascending currents formation. There is convection forming in the air. There are unfavorable conditions for ascending currents formation.

12. Which of the phenomena occurring on the II. kind cold front are particularly dangerous for low-flying aircraft?

Drop of cloud base, sometimes even to the ground. High pressure and temperature drop. Strong turbulence limited to the narrow space of vortex - the microburst, with axis approximately at the base of Cb - cumulonimbus cloud.

13. Clouds classified as high level clouds constitute of:

hail. supercooled water droplets. ice crystals.

14. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Frontal fog. Radiation fog. Advection fog.

15. In practice we converse wind speed in m/s into kt by formula:

1 m/s ~ 2 kt 1 m/s ~ 3 kt 1 m/s ~ 1 kt

16. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

17. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

18. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased.

19. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight.

20. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge.

21. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

22. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

measurements on a map. the compass needle free of any interferences. the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south.

23. The globe is:

a net of coordinate lines. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. ideal sphere.

24. The horizontal velocity is given:

in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in knots. in feet.

25. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

26. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

identical. not identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole.

27. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute.

28. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

under a Cumulonimbus cloud. after being blown behind a mountain ridge. in rapid uncontrolable rotation.

29. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences.

30. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift.

31. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight.

32. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines.

33. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

34. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

0. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere. the airport altitude AMSL.

35. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age.

36. In G class airspace there is:

no request of connection. a request of permanent two way connection. a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL.

37. TMA (Terminal Control Area)

cannot be flown under or over. can be flown under. can be flown under only with a two way radio communication with AFIS.

38. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

from sunset to sunrise. in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset. only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority.

39. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m AMSL 300 m AGL 300 m STD

40. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

42. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.

44. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond. if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years.

45. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions.

46. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the body in extended position. hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

47. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help.

48. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart.

49. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body.

50. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body.