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Test - PL A

1. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest. the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest.

2. The lift coefficient is influenced the most by:

the speed of flow. the air foil thickness. the air foil curving.

3. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase.

4. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the weight and lift ratio. the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed. the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider.

5. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

lift and overpressure. the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag. lift, mass and drag.

6. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

The lift is evenly distributed. In the middle of the glider. At the side parts of the glider.

7. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in the same direction. the flow of air particles in different directions. when the air particles are not moving.

8. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

significant rise of forces in steering lines. decrease of steering forces. sudden increase of descent rate.

9. During summer in Central Europe, in the central part of a significant anticyclone we expect:

mostly sunny, light wind, high temperatures duding a day, weakening thermics. clear skies, strong winds, cold at night, warm at daytime and strong thermics. inversion fog, variable wind, night thunderstorms and strong thermics during a day.

10. Which of these cloud species belong among clouds of crystal composition?

Cb - cumulonimbus, Ac - altocumulus Cc - cirocumulus, Cs - cirostratus Ns - nimbostratus, As - altostratus

11. Clouds classified as high level clouds constitute of:

hail. supercooled water droplets. ice crystals.

12. Increasing distance between isobars means that in the given area the air velocity will be:

faster. the distance between isobars tells nothing about the air velocity. slower.

13. The main cause of atmospheric convection is:

uneven heating of the earth's surface of different colors. sufficient air heating on the earth's surface during unstable stratification. the day and night temperature difference.

14. What temperature stratification is favorable for the occurence of vertical motions in the troposphere?

stable indifferent instable

15. Humidity means:

precipitation fall the amount of water vapor in the air snowing

16. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

17. What does the term „spin” mean?

Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

19. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

20. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same.

21. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

22. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

measurements on a map. the compass needle free of any interferences. the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south.

23. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

Paris. London. Moscow.

24. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

true air speed. indicated air speed. ground speed.

25. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

26. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

27. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

28. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. pull the second steering fully and then release both. release the steering continuously.

29. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated.

30. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute.

31. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers.

32. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a lonely tree. a forest road. dense forest.

33. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

34. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Yes. Only in clouds. No.

35. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

36. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at a flight outside the airport. at every flight. at every cross country flight.

37. The paraglider canopy is damaged mostly by:

UV rays, mechanical abrasion and humidity. mice and other wild rodents. storage in dark and dry rooms.

38. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight above the ground level. the hight according the local atmospheric pressure. the hight above the see level.

39. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age.

40. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a sport pilot and a PG instructor. a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture.

44. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„ a position that the afflicted person wants to take. a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position).

45. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound.

46. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. The priority of an improvised transport is speed.

47. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet.

48. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to wave by any object of red color. to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N).

49. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest. the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move. we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery.

50. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot.