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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow. the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line.

2. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

negative pressure. overpressure. no pressure.

3. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force.

4. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km.

5. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

does not change. decreases. increases.

6. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

gravity force and lift plus drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift. lift and drag.

7. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

No. Only for tail wind. Yes.

8. Surface load:

indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area.

9. The valley wind is blowing:

along the mountain valley axis at daytime up to the mountains (against the river stream). across the valley due to winds aloft. across the valley up the mountain slopes.

10. Condensed isobars on the synoptic map indicate:

greater pressure difference and therefore stronger wind. high temperature difference. pressure level of the area.

11. A passing cold front with active storm manifestations is reflected by:

temperature decrease, strong athmopheric pressure decrease followed by its increase, strong wind speed increase with gusts. a temperature decrease later followed by its increase, no change in athmospheric pressure, wind fading. no change in temperature, slight pressure decrease and slight wind speed decrease without gusts.

12. Which of the phenomena occurring on the II. kind cold front are particularly dangerous for low-flying aircraft?

Drop of cloud base, sometimes even to the ground. High pressure and temperature drop. Strong turbulence limited to the narrow space of vortex - the microburst, with axis approximately at the base of Cb - cumulonimbus cloud.

13. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Radiation fog. Frontal fog. Advection fog.

14. The correct ICAO abbreviation of northwest wind is:

SE SW NW

15. Wind significantly affects air traffic:

during landing and takeoff, but not in flight at flight level. only in flight at flight level. in all its stages.

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

17. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

19. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers.

20. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

21. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

22. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic situation. topographic area. map projections.

23. Course is measured in degrees from north:

counterclockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. clockwise.

24. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

declination. alitude. negative hight, so called dephtines.

25. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

depending on the intensity of sunlight. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods.

26. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

with the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left. against the wind.

27. Geographical meridian is:

a circle around the globe. a half of meridian circle. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis.

28. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

29. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute.

30. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

wait until the glider stops itself. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. pull the A risers or lines.

31. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

32. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers.

33. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

34. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight. The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety.

35. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered but cannot be left. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority.

36. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

Not during an airport flight. No. Yes.

37. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

38. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone

39. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

the airport altitude AMSL. 0. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere.

40. A pilot must always have:

a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

First we try to free the airway. We promptly transport him to the professional medical service. We start the resuscitation immediately.

44. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. anywhere between the wound and heart. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart.

45. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„The tourniquet must hurt.“ „If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“

46. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering.

47. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil.

48. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status.

49. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important).

50. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet.