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Test - PL A

1. At the critical angle of attack:

the lift coefficient sharply increases. the drag coefficient drops abruptly. the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly.

2. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Releasing the steering. Pulling the steering. Pushing the speed system.

3. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing.

4. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing with weight changes. is changing when flying in wind. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same.

5. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics. that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight.

6. Lift is:

the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force. an area resistance given by the angle of attack.

7. The lift on the aerofoil:

is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil.

8. When air flow is laminar:

there is a relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is no relative mix of streamlines.

9. Which of the following cloud types may reach up into the stratosphere?

Cirrostratus Cumulonimbus Cumulus

10. What will be the surface wind characteristics in the area where on the surface meteorological map there are isobars close together?

Strong wind blowing approximately along the isobars. Weak wind blowing along the isobars. Strong wind blowing perpedicularly to the isobars.

11. An aircraft is flying at a very warm day across the Alps. The weather is good and there is an anticyclone in the area. The aircraft is flying by a mountain at the hight of its summit. What value is the altimeter showing compared to the summit altitude?

A higher height than the summit altitude. The same height as the summit altitude. A lower height than the summit altitude.

12. The basic cause of cloud formation in the atmosphere is:

achieving a state of saturation followed by water vapor condensation. achieving a state of saturation. decrease of air temperature with height.

13. The valley wind is blowing:

along the mountain valley axis at daytime up to the mountains (against the river stream). across the valley up the mountain slopes. across the valley due to winds aloft.

14. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

in summer at midday. in winter at midday. at noon.

15. The land breeze:

blows at night and is weaker than the see breeze. blows during a day and is weaker than the see breeze. blows during a day and is stronger than the see breeze.

16. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Seven. Five.

17. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

18. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering.

19. Spiral is performed by:

weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

20. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

21. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

22. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. 2 hours. There is no difference.

23. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

20 km 50 km 200 km

24. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation.

25. Direction south is reported by:

360° 090° 180°

26. 045 degrees is direction:

north east. south west. north west.

27. The prime meridian is:

the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England.

28. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

29. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field.

30. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes.

31. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears.

32. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

33. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

against the wind. with the wind from a side. with the wind.

34. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

outside the clouds and in visibility of ground. at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud.

35. If two aircrafts are flying on lines facing each other or approximately such, each of them should give way by changing its course to the:

side which is more suitable for avoiding a crash. left. right.

36. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility. at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically.

37. A light aircraft can be steered by:

a pilot who holds a valid assessment on medical fitness or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a person authorized by the light aircraft operator in the presence of the pilot, or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum.

38. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

39. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered but cannot be left.

40. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety. The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight.

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents.

43. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the body in extended position.

44. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions.

45. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage.

46. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We promptly transport him to the professional medical service. We start the resuscitation immediately. First we try to free the airway.

47. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid. lay the afflicted in the stabilized position.

48. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage.

49. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

112 155 1210

50. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture.