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Test - PL A

1. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

increases. decreases. stays the same.

2. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in different directions. when the air particles are not moving. the flow of air particles in the same direction.

3. The separation of streamlines is when:

the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil. turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow. the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape.

4. The main cause of the stall is always:

exceeding the critical angle of attack. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider. decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight.

5. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km.

6. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change. changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change. changes because effective bearing area is the same.

7. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

8. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

increases. decreases. does not change.

9. There are massive and pronounced Cb - cumulonimbus clouds forming in the area of a athmospheric front. It is a typical manifestation of:

warm ocluded front. warm front. II. type cold front.

10. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the greatest:

over the equatorial regions. over the poles. in the temperate zones.

11. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

drizzle. persistent rainfall. strong showers.

12. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of strong turbulence?

Altocumulus lenticularis Cirrocumulus Nimbostratus

13. With increasing altitude the wind speed usually:

decreases. increases. increases in the summer and decreases in the winter.

14. Cooling speed of rising air saturated with water vapor is less than of unsaturated air because:

water vapor absorbs heat radiated by air. condensation releases heat. water vapor is not cooled as fast as dry air.

15. Precipitation coming off St-stratus layer of cloud is mostly:

hail. violent torrential rain. drizzle.

16. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

17. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. increased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

19. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

20. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

21. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope.

22. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

negative hight, so called dephtines. declination. alitude.

23. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

45 km 60 km 50 km

24. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to focus on one landmark. to locate and identify several landmarks. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft.

25. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the geological poles. the marine poles. the magnetic poles.

26. Geographical meridian is:

a half of meridian circle. a circle around the globe. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis.

27. 225 degrees is direction:

north west. south east. south west.

28. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated.

29. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

30. After a tall tree landing:

you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed. you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK. you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.)

31. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. wait until the glider stops itself. pull the A risers or lines.

32. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow.

33. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. pull the second steering fully and then release both. release the steering continuously.

34. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at flights outside the airport. with them at every flight. with them at cross country flights.

35. A pilot must always have:

a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.

36. The dangerous airspace (LKD) is is an area where flying is:

restricted. dangerous. prohibited.

37. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

38. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

valid AIP or ICAO map. official CAA map. ADAC map.

39. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left. You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right.

40. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

gentle transportation to the place of professional help. fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions. to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss.

44. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side. convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment.

45. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it.

46. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape. by waving any object of bright color. by standing with arms up in Y shape.

47. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration.

48. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position.

49. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter.

50. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart.