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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. parasitic drag and supportive drag. form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag.

2. Turbulent flow is:

when the air particles are not moving. the flow of air particles in the same direction. the flow of air particles in different directions.

3. The optimal gliding ratio can be flown:

with just one angle of attack. with critical angle of attack. with two different angles of attack.

4. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

5. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

6. The lift on the aerofoil:

is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing.

7. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio. the speed and drag ratio. the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio.

8. When air flow is laminar:

there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is a relative mix of streamlines. there is no relative mix of streamlines.

9. In the area of high pressure in the northern hemisphere the wind close to the ground is blowing:

clockwise. strait out from the middle of high pressure in the whole area. counter clockwise.

10. Which basic parameters and phenomena determine the weather inside air masses?

Temperature, humidity, vertical temperature gradient. Precipitations and visibility. Pressure, clouds and air density.

11. The stratification of air in an inversion layer is:

indifferent. unstable. stable.

12. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts. Persistent rainfall. Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing.

13. The land breeze:

blows during a day and is stronger than the see breeze. blows at night and is weaker than the see breeze. blows during a day and is weaker than the see breeze.

14. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

in winter at midday. at noon. in summer at midday.

15. What weather conditions are expected in temperate latitudes over land in summer in the middle of a stationary area of high pressure?

Ns clouds. Thunderstorms, clear air and strong winds. Weak winds, haze.

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

17. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

18. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Five. Three.

20. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

22. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground.

23. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

not identical. identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole.

24. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate compass. accurate watch. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

25. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic situation. topographic area. map projections.

26. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

27. Time is reported:

in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec.

28. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself. pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy.

29. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field.

30. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

under a Cumulonimbus cloud. in rapid uncontrolable rotation. after being blown behind a mountain ridge.

31. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow.

32. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost.

33. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

34. Except for takeoff or landing, or except by permit issued by the Aviation Authority, a VFR flight must be conducted over the congested areas or gathering of people in the open air at a height that may not be less than:

300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft.

35. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

No. Yes. Not during an airport flight.

36. In G class airspace there is:

a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL. a request of permanent two way connection. no request of connection.

37. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

a specified altitude. the upper limit of the G class air space. the ground surface.

38. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

39. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety. The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight.

40. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

nine months. six months. five months.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing.

43. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection.

44. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid. lay the afflicted in the stabilized position.

45. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

155 1210 112

46. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction.

47. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position. The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage.

48. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

49. The telephone number of medical emergency service in the Czech Republic is:

150 158 155

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute.