Check out how you stand with your knowledge to obtain a paragliding pilot's license.
Unsure or don't know the correct answer? Learn everything you need right in our online classroom.
Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts.

2. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the speed and drag ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio. the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio.

3. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

4. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase.

5. The main cause of the stall is always:

exceeding the critical angle of attack. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider. decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight.

6. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line.

7. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force.

8. The lift coefficient is influenced the most by:

the air foil curving. the speed of flow. the air foil thickness.

9. Precipitation zone of a warm front is:

at the front line and it is short rainfall. mostly right after the front line and it is showers. before the front line and it is persistent rainfall.

10. The greatest concentration of condensation nuclei is:

near large urban areas (industrial areas). above mountains. above oceans.

11. Thermal turbulence originates:

in uneven heating of the Earth surface. in a hilly terrain. in air heated by the ground in unstable air conditions.

12. What ground level weather is usually associated with a permanent area of high pressure over the mainland in winter?

Ns cloudiness with permanent rain. Fog tendency and low St-type cloudiness. Thunderstorms.

13. What thunder storms move forward the fastest?

Mass storms. Frontal storms. Orographic storms.

14. Among high level clouds are:

Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus Cc – cirrocumulus, Cs – cirrostratus St – stratus, Sc – stratocumulus

15. The valley wind is blowing:

across the valley due to winds aloft. along the mountain valley axis at daytime up to the mountains (against the river stream). across the valley up the mountain slopes.

16. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

17. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased. decreased.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Five. Three.

19. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system.

20. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

22. 045 degrees is direction:

north west. north east. south west.

23. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

24. 225 degrees is direction:

south west. north west. south east.

25. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic area. topographic situation. map projections.

26. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

27. Direction south is reported by:

180° 090° 360°

28. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes.

29. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing.

30. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. pull the A risers or lines. wait until the glider stops itself.

31. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

32. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost.

33. For emergency landing You would prefer:

buildings. water. trees.

34. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the upper limit of the G class air space. a specified altitude. the ground surface.

35. Flying above a gathering of people at such a height that would not allow a safe landing in case of danger without endangering pilots or people on the ground is:

allowed. possible only at an air show with a valid authorization issued. forbidden.

36. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every cross country flight. at every flight. at a flight outside the airport.

37. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

from the left. from the right. against the sun.

38. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right.

39. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in FL 125. in 1500 m AMSL. in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map).

40. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early.

43. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status.

44. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by waving any object of bright color. by standing with arms up in Y shape. by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape.

45. The telephone number of medical emergency service in the Czech Republic is:

150 158 155

46. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

in the middle of chest bone. next to left nipple. by the lower end of chest bone.

47. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body.

48. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

49. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to wave by any object of red color. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N).

50. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond.