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Test - PL A

1. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

Only for tail wind. No. Yes.

2. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

3. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in different directions. the flow of air particles in the same direction. when the air particles are not moving.

4. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag. lift, mass and drag. lift and overpressure.

5. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

lift and drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift. gravity force and lift plus drag.

6. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive).

7. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. its velocity is 6 m/s.

8. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is not changing. is changing because the wing banks in the same moment. is changing due to a change of trailing edge position.

9. The greatest concentration of condensation nuclei is:

near large urban areas (industrial areas). above oceans. above mountains.

10. There are massive and pronounced Cb - cumulonimbus clouds forming in the area of a athmospheric front. It is a typical manifestation of:

warm front. warm ocluded front. II. type cold front.

11. During summer in Central Europe, in the central part of a significant anticyclone we expect:

mostly sunny, light wind, high temperatures duding a day, weakening thermics. clear skies, strong winds, cold at night, warm at daytime and strong thermics. inversion fog, variable wind, night thunderstorms and strong thermics during a day.

12. The valley wind is blowing:

across the valley due to winds aloft. across the valley up the mountain slopes. along the mountain valley axis at daytime up to the mountains (against the river stream).

13. Air density:

increases with decreasing air temperature. decreases with decreasing air temperature. increases with increasing air temperature.

14. The decrease of temperature with altitude in a standard atmosphere definition - vertical temperature gradient - has a value of:

0,6° C / 100 m. 0,65° C / 100 m. 1,0° C / 100 m.

15. Among the typical local winds belongs the wind called "Föhn":

It blows especially in vast dry plains in the autumn. It blows from the valley to the mountains. It blows from the mountains to the valley.

16. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

17. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.

18. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

19. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope.

20. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

21. What does the term „spin” mean?

Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall.

22. Direction south is reported by:

360° 090° 180°

23. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the compass needle free of any interferences. measurements on a map. the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south.

24. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

20 km 50 km 200 km

25. Magnetic course is measured:

from prime meridian. from bearing indicator. from geographical north of local meridian.

26. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

There is no difference. 2 hours. 1 hour.

27. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. those with precise angles.

28. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. pull the second steering fully and then release both. release the steering continuously.

29. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. a lonely tree. dense forest.

30. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines.

31. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

32. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field.

33. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident.

34. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left.

35. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

No. Not during an airport flight. Yes.

36. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight.

37. A pilot must always have:

a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.

38. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator.

39. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a sport pilot and a PG instructor. a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training.

40. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

300 m 150 m except for ridge soaring. 150 m

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We promptly transport him to the professional medical service. We start the resuscitation immediately. First we try to free the airway.

44. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

45. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. the process should be as fast as possible. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation.

46. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.

47. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration.

48. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

by the lower end of chest bone. next to left nipple. in the middle of chest bone.

49. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. always as a priority on any wound or fracture. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger.

50. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status).