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Test - PL A

1. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

In the middle of the glider. At the side parts of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed.

2. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

does not change. increases. decreases.

3. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight.

4. The separation of streamlines is when:

turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow. the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape. the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil.

5. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

total weight. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients). the velocity of flow.

6. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

7. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. its velocity is 6 m/s.

8. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

changes because effective bearing area is the same. does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change. changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change.

9. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts. Persistent rainfall. Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing.

10. What ground level weather is usually associated with a permanent area of high pressure over the mainland in winter?

Thunderstorms. Fog tendency and low St-type cloudiness. Ns cloudiness with permanent rain.

11. Which of the layers of Earth's atmosphere is characterized by vertical movements?

Troposphere. Stratosphere. Tropopause.

12. Which of these cloud species belong among clouds of crystal composition?

Cc - cirocumulus, Cs - cirostratus Ns - nimbostratus, As - altostratus Cb - cumulonimbus, Ac - altocumulus

13. How is relative humidity of air affected by changes in the quantity of water vapor contained in it?

It is affected only by temperature. It is not affected by water vapour amount changes. It increases with increasing amounts of water vapor.

14. The decrease of temperature with altitude in a standard atmosphere definition - vertical temperature gradient - has a value of:

0,65° C / 100 m. 0,6° C / 100 m. 1,0° C / 100 m.

15. Stationary front is the one that:

is not moving or moves very slowly. is moving in leaps. is moving only clockwise.

16. Spiral is performed by:

weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

17. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Three. Five.

18. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

19. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

20. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing.

21. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

22. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. south west. north west.

23. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. counterclockwise.

24. The prime meridian is:

the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle.

25. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

declination. negative hight, so called dephtines. alitude.

26. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

27. 045 degrees is direction:

south west. north west. north east.

28. After a tall tree landing:

you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.) you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed. you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK.

29. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind.

30. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears.

31. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

a parking. electric wires. water surface.

32. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

33. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind.

34. TMA (Terminal Control Area)

can be flown under. can be flown under only with a two way radio communication with AFIS. cannot be flown under or over.

35. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age.

36. Flying above a gathering of people at such a height that would not allow a safe landing in case of danger without endangering pilots or people on the ground is:

allowed. forbidden. possible only at an air show with a valid authorization issued.

37. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

official CAA map. ADAC map. valid AIP or ICAO map.

38. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR. always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR. by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”.

39. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone

40. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

150 m 300 m 150 m except for ridge soaring.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position. The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back.

44. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil.

45. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound.

46. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2.

47. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check. 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions).

48. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it. If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position). If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain.

49. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection.

50. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering.