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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The chord is:

the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil. the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts.

2. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line.

3. Larger part of lift is generated:

above the aerofoil, around 2/3. above 2/3 of the aerofoil, around 55%. below the aerofoil, around 2/3.

4. The lift on the aerofoil:

is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing.

5. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing.

6. The separation of streamlines is when:

the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape. the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil. turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow.

7. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

8. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag.

9. The change of physical state ice - water vapor is called:

condensation evaporation sublimation

10. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

Sc, Ns St, Cs Cu, Cb

11. Local isolated thunderstorms are mostly:

frontal air lift (cold front). frontal air lift (warm front). mass storms.

12. The basic cause of cloud formation in the atmosphere is:

decrease of air temperature with height. achieving a state of saturation followed by water vapor condensation. achieving a state of saturation.

13. The land breeze:

blows during a day and is stronger than the see breeze. blows during a day and is weaker than the see breeze. blows at night and is weaker than the see breeze.

14. Isobars are lines on surface weather maps that connect points:

of the same pressure recalculated to the sea level. of the same humidity. of the same temperature recalculated to the sea level.

15. The low pressure system - Cyclone - is the area:

of low atmospheric pressure with the minimum value on its bordes. where the atmospheric pressure is decreasing outwards. of low atmospheric pressure with the minimum value in its middle.

16. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased.

17. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

19. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering.

20. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

21. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

22. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. those with precise angles. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles.

23. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

not identical. identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole.

24. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation.

25. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

with the wind. against the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left.

26. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

50 km 200 km 20 km

27. Geographical North and South:

change location depending on annual periods. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. do not change location.

28. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway.

29. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

30. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing.

31. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself. pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy. weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci

32. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK.

33. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

a parking. water surface. electric wires.

34. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m STD 300 m AGL 300 m AMSL

35. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight.

36. Who is authorized to check a pilot's license or student document?

Paragliding operations inspector and Paragliding technical inspector of LAA CR, a person authorized by the Ministry of Transport or the CAA of the CR, Czech Police. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, Czech Police, Czech CAA inspector, a person authorized by an airport or property owner. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, person authorized of Ministry of Transport, Czech Police or local municipal authority personnel.

37. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

restrict the other aircraft. be less then 150m. create a collision hazard.

38. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

39. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels.

40. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically.

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen.

44. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case.

45. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

46. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

47. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly.

48. The best way of use of the „anti-shock” foil (thermal blanket) is:

The afflicted is tightly wraped into it including head, only face is uncovered. It is laid under the afflicted. The afflicted is carefully covered with it.

49. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. The priority of an improvised transport is speed. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance.

50. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain. If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position). If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it.