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Test - PL A

1. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

At the side parts of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed. In the middle of the glider.

2. In a normal steady flight:

there is overpressure on the upper surface and negative pressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is overpressure on the upper and lower surface of the wing. there is negative pressure on the upper surface and overpressure on the lower surface of the wing.

3. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground. it will fly 1 km in 10 s.

4. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the weight of the aircraft and lift. the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force. the drag and the gravity force.

5. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in the same direction. when the air particles are not moving. the flow of air particles in different directions.

6. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface.

7. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

decreases. does not change. increases.

8. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

9. Coriolis force acting on the wind is:

inertia force causing bodies movement deflection, thus also the air flow. the friction force. the centrifugal force.

10. Mass storms occur:

anytime. mostly during the night. mostly in the afternoon and evening in the hours of the highest ground temperatures.

11. Low level cloud can be:

Ac – altocumulus Ci – cirrus St – stratus

12. What type of precipitation can be expected on an active cold front?

Drizzle. Showers and thunderstorms. Light persistent rain.

13. The most common wind direction in the valley caused by thermal effects is:

during the day down the hill. during the day towards the hill. during the night towards the hill.

14. Precipitation falling out of the cloud systems of significant warm fronts are mainly:

persistent rainfall. showers. occasional rainfall.

15. Stationary front is the one that:

is moving in leaps. is moving only clockwise. is not moving or moves very slowly.

16. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

17. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Five. Seven.

18. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

19. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

20. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

22. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

50 km 60 km 45 km

23. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

24. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

indicated air speed. true air speed. ground speed.

25. Geographical meridian is:

a half of meridian circle. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a circle around the globe.

26. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Moscow. Paris.

27. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. the compass needle free of any interferences. measurements on a map.

28. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. using the reserve parachute.

29. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface.

30. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy. no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself.

31. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers.

32. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

33. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

under a Cumulonimbus cloud. in rapid uncontrolable rotation. after being blown behind a mountain ridge.

34. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices. which received permission for landing approach. which is landing or in the final approach to the landing.

35. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at flights outside the airport. with them at every flight. with them at cross country flights.

36. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground.

37. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the aircraft commander (pilot). the operator. the head of air traffic.

38. Airport operations are:

all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area. all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport.

39. From a sport aircraft (SLZ) it is forbidden:

to drop anything or spray, except under certain conditions. to spray. to drop things between sunrise and sunset.

40. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Yes. No. Only in clouds.

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). hanging in a triangular bandage.

44. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration.

45. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound.

46. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease. should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds. should be used for taking care of any injury.

47. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The priority of an improvised transport is speed.

48. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the body in extended position.

49. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check.

50. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it.