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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The lift coefficient is influenced the most by:

the air foil curving. the air foil thickness. the speed of flow.

2. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. its velocity is 6 m/s.

3. The lift acts:

always upwards from the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the chord.

4. Induced drag:

arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft. arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft. arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference.

5. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

Only for tail wind. No. Yes.

6. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

negative pressure. no pressure. overpressure.

7. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase.

8. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts.

9. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the lowest:

above poles. above Equator areas. in temperate zones.

10. Local isolated thunderstorms are mostly:

mass storms. frontal air lift (warm front). frontal air lift (cold front).

11. Isobars are lines on surface weather maps that connect points:

of the same temperature recalculated to the sea level. of the same pressure recalculated to the sea level. of the same humidity.

12. Unsaturated adiabatic curve is showing the change in temperature with height of value:

0,60 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,65 °C / 100 m of hight. 1,00 °C / 100 m of hight.

13. The most common wind direction in the valley caused by thermal effects is:

during the day down the hill. during the night towards the hill. during the day towards the hill.

14. In troposphere, at vertical rise of 100 m the pressure drop:

is higher in higher altitudes then in lower altitudes. is lower in higher altitudes then in lower altitudes. is the same in all altitudes.

15. The correct ICAO abbreviation of northwest wind is:

SE SW NW

16. Spiral is performed by:

weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

17. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

18. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

19. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system.

20. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing.

21. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air.

22. 045 degrees is direction:

north west. south west. north east.

23. 225 degrees is direction:

north west. south west. south east.

24. Geographic coordinates indicate:

time zone position. certain place name. certain geographical location.

25. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the geological poles. the marine poles. the magnetic poles.

26. The prime meridian is:

a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England.

27. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 2 hours. 1 hour.

28. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre.

29. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

against the wind. with the wind from a side. with the wind.

30. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

31. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn.

32. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. release the steering continuously.

33. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. a lonely tree. dense forest.

34. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

8 km 1,5 km 5 km

35. In G class airspace there is:

a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL. a request of permanent two way connection. no request of connection.

36. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a sport pilot and a PG instructor. a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training.

37. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset. from sunset to sunrise. only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority.

38. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 125 (3800 m) FL 95 (2900 m) FL 85 (2600 m)

39. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

nine months. six months. five months.

40. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the operator. the aircraft commander (pilot). the head of air traffic.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

should be used for taking care of any injury. are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease. should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds.

44. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape. into a stretcher tied straight branches. his paragliding harness.

45. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage.

46. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger.

47. The best way of use of the „anti-shock” foil (thermal blanket) is:

It is laid under the afflicted. The afflicted is tightly wraped into it including head, only face is uncovered. The afflicted is carefully covered with it.

48. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body. the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness.

49. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. always as a priority on any wound or fracture. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger.

50. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective.