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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface.

2. A paraglider stall occures when:

the speed system is pushed too fast. the glider overcomes the pilot when taking off. the pilot breaks too much.

3. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

At the side parts of the glider. In the middle of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed.

4. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the chord. always upwards from the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil.

5. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing. the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing.

6. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km.

7. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it will fly 1 km in 10 s. it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground.

8. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider. the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed. the weight and lift ratio.

9. Wind significantly affects air traffic:

in all its stages. during landing and takeoff, but not in flight at flight level. only in flight at flight level.

10. In the area of high pressure in the northern hemisphere the wind close to the ground is blowing:

counter clockwise. clockwise. strait out from the middle of high pressure in the whole area.

11. Which of the following clouds can spread over several levels (according to hight levels of clouds)?

Altocumulus Nimbostratus Cirrus

12. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

Sc, Ns Cu, Cb St, Cs

13. The air density of the atmosphere with altitude:

doesn't change. decreases. increases.

14. When I. kind cold front passes, the precipitation zone is:

after the front line. at the front line. before the front line.

15. Condensed isobars on the synoptic map indicate:

high temperature difference. greater pressure difference and therefore stronger wind. pressure level of the area.

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse.

17. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

18. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind.

19. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

20. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

21. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased. increased.

22. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

perpendicularly to the wind from left. with the wind. against the wind.

23. The globe is:

ideal sphere. a net of coordinate lines. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles.

24. The horizontal velocity is given:

in feet. in knots. in km/h, MPH or knots (kts).

25. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

26. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. depending on the intensity of sunlight. with annual periods.

27. 045 degrees is direction:

north east. south west. north west.

28. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind from a side. against the wind. with the wind.

29. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him.

30. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre.

31. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a lonely tree. a forest road. dense forest.

32. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK.

33. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

in rapid uncontrolable rotation. after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

34. The aircraft, that is obliged by the rules to give way to another aircraft, must:

avoid by flying above or under or cross the other aircraft flight line at a sufficient distance. avoided so that the maintained vertical distance between aircrafts was 150 m. avoided so that the maintained horizontal distance between aircrafts was 300 m.

35. A pilot must always have:

a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation. a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.

36. In G class airspace there is:

a request of permanent two way connection. no request of connection. a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL.

37. Who is authorized to check a pilot's license or student document?

Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, Czech Police, Czech CAA inspector, a person authorized by an airport or property owner. Paragliding operations inspector and Paragliding technical inspector of LAA CR, a person authorized by the Ministry of Transport or the CAA of the CR, Czech Police. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, person authorized of Ministry of Transport, Czech Police or local municipal authority personnel.

38. What is it CTR?

Control zone of an airport. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden. Terminal controlled area.

39. Airport operations are:

all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area. all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport.

40. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety. The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always as a priority on any wound or fracture. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures.

44. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound.

45. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.

46. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle. put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage. fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage.

47. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration.

48. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„The tourniquet must hurt.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „If using tourniquet, then properly.“

49. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective.

50. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status).