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Test - PL A

1. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

thrust and weight, drag and lift. gravity force and lift plus drag. lift and drag.

2. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing.

3. The optimal gliding ratio can be flown:

with two different angles of attack. with critical angle of attack. with just one angle of attack.

4. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

stays the same. decreases. increases.

5. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

decreases. increases. does not change.

6. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

7. Surface load:

indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area.

8. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the wing arrow and air foil thickness. the air foil thickness and special aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape.

9. What will be the surface wind characteristics in the area where on the surface meteorological map there are isobars close together?

Strong wind blowing perpedicularly to the isobars. Weak wind blowing along the isobars. Strong wind blowing approximately along the isobars.

10. The change of physical state water - water vapor is called:

condensation evaporation sublimation

11. What are the other two conditions, besides forces causing air lift, necessary for the creation of a thunderstorm?

Unstable conditions and low air pressure. Unstable conditions and high air humidity. Stable conditions and high air pressure.

12. The 10 m/s wind speed is:

30 km/h. 33,3 km/h. 36 km/h.

13. If a paraglider or powered paraglider pilot sees a Cumulonimbus cloud while flying, he should:

fly under the cloud in a safe vertical distance from its cloud base. land on a suitable landing field as soon as possible. fly around the storm area in a safe distance.

14. Hazardous phenomena associated with a I. kind cold front are usually:

Cb - cumulonimbus clouds at the head of the front hidden in low stratiform clouds, turbulence and icing. Only low level clouds of stratiform types. strong gusty surface wind.

15. The valley wind is blowing:

across the valley due to winds aloft. along the mountain valley axis at daytime up to the mountains (against the river stream). across the valley up the mountain slopes.

16. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

17. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers.

18. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Seven. Five.

19. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

20. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased.

21. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing.

22. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

23. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

24. The prime meridian is:

the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle.

25. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. those with precise angles.

26. Magnetic course is measured:

from geographical north of local meridian. from bearing indicator. from prime meridian.

27. Geographical meridian is:

a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a circle around the globe. a half of meridian circle.

28. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway.

29. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket and a flare.

30. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift.

31. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

32. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. a lonely tree. dense forest.

33. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

34. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”. always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR. always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR.

35. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

150 m except for ridge soaring. 150 m 300 m

36. The paraglider canopy is damaged mostly by:

storage in dark and dry rooms. UV rays, mechanical abrasion and humidity. mice and other wild rodents.

37. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. a specified altitude. the upper limit of the G class air space.

38. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

80 degrees. 60 degrees. 70 degrees.

39. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which is landing or in the final approach to the landing. which received permission for landing approach. which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices.

40. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility.

41. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

43. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

the highest possible frequency of compressions. timely starting and continuity of compressions. the deepest compressions.

44. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient.

45. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration.

46. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

stabilised position. forward head tilt. backward head tilt.

47. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds. should be used for taking care of any injury. are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease.

48. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment. thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side.

49. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage. The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position.

50. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services. We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance.