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Test - PL A

1. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

2. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag.

3. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the speed and drag ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio.

4. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy. changes of the size of projected area of the canopy.

5. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase.

6. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing. the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing.

7. The main cause of the stall is always:

decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider. exceeding the critical angle of attack.

8. The lift on the aerofoil:

is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing.

9. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

persistent rainfall. drizzle. strong showers.

10. The most common wind direction in the valley caused by thermal effects is:

during the day towards the hill. during the day down the hill. during the night towards the hill.

11. What temperature stratification is favorable for the occurence of vertical motions in the troposphere?

indifferent stable instable

12. The decrease of temperature with altitude in a standard atmosphere definition - vertical temperature gradient - has a value of:

0,65° C / 100 m. 0,6° C / 100 m. 1,0° C / 100 m.

13. Which types of clouds are typical for a warm front cloud system:

Sc – stratocumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cc – cirocumulus Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cb – cumulonimbus Ns – nimbostratus, As – altostratus, Cs – cirostratus

14. In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

Gas into liquid. Solid substance into gas. Liquid into gas.

15. Cooling speed of rising air saturated with water vapor is less than of unsaturated air because:

water vapor absorbs heat radiated by air. water vapor is not cooled as fast as dry air. condensation releases heat.

16. What does the term „spin” mean?

A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall.

17. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

18. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse.

19. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

20. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind.

21. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers.

22. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. north west. south west.

23. Course is measured in degrees from north:

counterclockwise. clockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west.

24. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Moscow. Paris.

25. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to focus on one landmark. to locate and identify several landmarks. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft.

26. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

map projections. topographic situation. topographic area.

27. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

true air speed. ground speed. indicated air speed.

28. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

under a Cumulonimbus cloud. after being blown behind a mountain ridge. in rapid uncontrolable rotation.

29. For emergency landing You would prefer:

water. buildings. trees.

30. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

31. If I stall the glider:

I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly.

32. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident.

33. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. using the reserve parachute.

34. If two aircrafts are flying on lines facing each other or approximately such, each of them should give way by changing its course to the:

side which is more suitable for avoiding a crash. left. right.

35. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right. You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left.

36. Who is authorized to check a pilot's license or student document?

Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, Czech Police, Czech CAA inspector, a person authorized by an airport or property owner. Paragliding operations inspector and Paragliding technical inspector of LAA CR, a person authorized by the Ministry of Transport or the CAA of the CR, Czech Police. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, person authorized of Ministry of Transport, Czech Police or local municipal authority personnel.

37. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”. always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR. always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR.

38. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service.

39. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the head of air traffic. the aircraft commander (pilot). the operator.

40. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage.

44. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. by the lower end of chest bone. in the middle of chest bone.

45. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always as a priority on any wound or fracture. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures.

46. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter.

47. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet.

48. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective.

49. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it.

50. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction.