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Test - PL A

1. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pulling the steering. Pushing the speed system. Releasing the steering.

2. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

3. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil.

4. Surface load:

indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight. indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area.

5. When air flow is laminar:

there is a relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is no relative mix of streamlines.

6. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

7. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the speed and drag ratio. the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio.

8. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

9. Which types of clouds are typical for a warm front cloud system:

Ns – nimbostratus, As – altostratus, Cs – cirostratus Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cb – cumulonimbus Sc – stratocumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cc – cirocumulus

10. The stratification of air in an inversion layer is:

unstable. indifferent. stable.

11. The air mass is called unstable if there are:

stratified clouds in it. inversions in it. convective vertical motions in it.

12. The decrease of temperature with altitude in a standard atmosphere definition - vertical temperature gradient - has a value of:

0,65° C / 100 m. 0,6° C / 100 m. 1,0° C / 100 m.

13. The main cause of atmospheric convection is:

the day and night temperature difference. sufficient air heating on the earth's surface during unstable stratification. uneven heating of the earth's surface of different colors.

14. Hazardous phenomena associated with a I. kind cold front are usually:

Cb - cumulonimbus clouds at the head of the front hidden in low stratiform clouds, turbulence and icing. strong gusty surface wind. Only low level clouds of stratiform types.

15. Which of clouds forming on the forehead of cold front is the most dangerous for air traffic?

Cb – cumulonimbus Ns – nimbostratus As – altostratus

16. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

17. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

18. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same.

19. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

20. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

22. Direction south is reported by:

180° 360° 090°

23. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic area. topographic situation. map projections.

24. The horizontal velocity is given:

in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in feet. in knots.

25. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Moscow. Paris.

26. Geographic coordinates indicate:

time zone position. certain place name. certain geographical location.

27. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to locate and identify several landmarks. to focus on one landmark.

28. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position.

29. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

30. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

31. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

32. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him.

33. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

wait until the glider stops itself. pull the A risers or lines. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers.

34. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

create a collision hazard. be less then 150m. restrict the other aircraft.

35. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map). in 1500 m AMSL. in FL 125.

36. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight. to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight.

37. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at a flight outside the airport. at every flight. at every cross country flight.

38. Airport operations are:

all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area. all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area.

39. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

from sunset to sunrise. only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority. in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset.

40. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered but cannot be left. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

42. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early.

43. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the body in extended position. hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

44. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by waving any object of bright color. by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape. by standing with arms up in Y shape.

45. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration.

46. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

a position that the afflicted person wants to take. the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„ a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position).

47. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil.

48. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

should be used for taking care of any injury. should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds. are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease.

49. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better.

50. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.).