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Test - PL A

1. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km.

2. The resultant aerodynamic force consists of:

lift coefficient and weight. lift and drag. lift and weight.

3. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

4. Induced drag:

arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft. arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft. arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference.

5. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

the velocity of flow. total weight. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients).

6. Surface load:

indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight.

7. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil.

8. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy. changes of the size of projected area of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy.

9. What vertical temperature stratification is typical for advection fog?

Inversion. Isothermy. Drop of temperature with altitude.

10. The boundary between troposphere and stratosphere is called:

tropopause atmosphere ionosphere

11. In troposphere, at vertical rise of 100 m the pressure drop:

is lower in higher altitudes then in lower altitudes. is the same in all altitudes. is higher in higher altitudes then in lower altitudes.

12. At what altitude the barometric pressure reaches about a half the pressure to the mean sea level?

7000 m MSL 3000 m MSL 5500 m MSL

13. With increasing altitude the wind speed usually:

increases. increases in the summer and decreases in the winter. decreases.

14. Dew point is:

the temperature to which air must be cooled to induce condensation. a place over which a cloud will form. the height of the zero isotherm.

15. Dangerous storm phenomena are:

strong updrafts with maximums in the upper half of CB cloud, stong turbulence, strong downdrafts with maximums near the CB cloudbase, frosts, electric characteristics of the Cb cloud. the density of the Cb cloud which consists of liquid and solid state of water. strong updrafts and hight of the Cb could.

16. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Three. Five.

17. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge.

18. What does the term „spin” mean?

Symmetric paragider stall. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. A spiral.

19. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

20. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

21. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

22. 045 degrees is direction:

south west. north east. north west.

23. Geographical meridian is:

a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a half of meridian circle. a circle around the globe.

24. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to focus on one landmark. to locate and identify several landmarks.

25. Magnetic course is measured:

from prime meridian. from bearing indicator. from geographical north of local meridian.

26. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground.

27. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

those with precise angles. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale.

28. After a tall tree landing:

you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK. you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed. you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.)

29. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly.

30. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind.

31. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

32. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

33. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines.

34. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud.

35. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

be less then 150m. create a collision hazard. restrict the other aircraft.

36. TMA (Terminal Control Area)

can be flown under. cannot be flown under or over. can be flown under only with a two way radio communication with AFIS.

37. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at cross country flights. with them at flights outside the airport. with them at every flight.

38. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically.

39. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

80 degrees. 60 degrees. 70 degrees.

40. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

8 km 1,5 km 5 km

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid.

44. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter.

45. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation. the process should be as fast as possible. caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway.

46. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position). If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it. If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain.

47. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

by the lower end of chest bone. next to left nipple. in the middle of chest bone.

48. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain.

49. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

155 1210 112

50. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

a priority first aid objective. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. necessary in case of open fracture.