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Test - PL A

1. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Releasing the steering. Pushing the speed system. Pulling the steering.

2. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end.

3. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

increases. decreases. stays the same.

4. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

increases. does not change. decreases.

5. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

lift and overpressure. lift, mass and drag. the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag.

6. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes of the size of projected area of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy.

7. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease.

8. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

9. The basic cause of mechanical turbulence is:

the air mass humidity and temperature. the air mass stratification. wind and configuration of terrain.

10. Saturated adiabatic curve is showing the change in temperature with height of value:

1,00 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,60 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,65 °C / 100 m of hight.

11. Among free-convective low-level clouds is:

Cu - cumulus As - altostratus St - stratus

12. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Advection fog. Radiation fog. Frontal fog.

13. If a paraglider or powered paraglider pilot sees a Cumulonimbus cloud while flying, he should:

fly around the storm area in a safe distance. fly under the cloud in a safe vertical distance from its cloud base. land on a suitable landing field as soon as possible.

14. In the definition of standard atmosphere the pressure and temperature values at mean sea level are:

1013,25 hPa, 0°C 1015 hPa, +10°C 1013,25 hPa, +15°C

15. A prerequisite for the condensation of the saturated water vapor in the troposphere is the presence of condensation nuclei which are:

solid particles. liquid particles. solid and liquid particles.

16. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

17. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

18. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers.

19. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse.

21. The take off control includes:

the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

22. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. counterclockwise. clockwise.

23. Direction south is reported by:

180° 360° 090°

24. Geographical meridian is:

a circle around the globe. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a half of meridian circle.

25. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

Moscow. London. Paris.

26. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

There is no difference. 2 hours. 1 hour.

27. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods. depending on the intensity of sunlight.

28. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn.

29. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

pull the second steering fully and then release both. release the steering continuously. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift.

30. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

against the wind. with the wind from a side. with the wind.

31. For emergency landing You would prefer:

trees. water. buildings.

32. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated.

33. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field.

34. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

35. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

be less then 150m. create a collision hazard. restrict the other aircraft.

36. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety. The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight. The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services.

37. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground. to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport.

38. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight above the ground level. the hight above the see level. the hight according the local atmospheric pressure.

39. The paraglider canopy is damaged mostly by:

mice and other wild rodents. storage in dark and dry rooms. UV rays, mechanical abrasion and humidity.

40. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 85 (2600 m) FL 125 (3800 m) FL 95 (2900 m)

41. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration.

44. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery. the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move. we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest.

45. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The priority of an improvised transport is speed. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport.

46. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“

47. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection.

48. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

The tourniquet needs tightening. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. We need to use another compress bandage.

49. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the body in extended position. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

50. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid.