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Test - PL A

1. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio. the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the speed and drag ratio.

2. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag. parasitic drag and supportive drag. parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag.

3. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km.

4. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

5. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag.

6. How the speed system works?

It decreases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. Sometimes it deforms the aerofoil shape. It increases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. It decreases the angle of attack by releasing the rear risers.

7. Surface load:

indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight.

8. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change. changes because effective bearing area is the same. does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change.

9. The greatest concentration of condensation nuclei is:

above oceans. above mountains. near large urban areas (industrial areas).

10. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Persistent rainfall. Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing. Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts.

11. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Radiation fog. Frontal fog. Advection fog.

12. A certain volume of moist but unsaturated air rises. Which of the following changes?

Relative humidity. Absolute humidity. Mixing ratio.

13. The valley wind is blowing:

across the valley due to winds aloft. across the valley up the mountain slopes. along the mountain valley axis at daytime up to the mountains (against the river stream).

14. What weather conditions are expected in temperate latitudes over land in summer in the middle of a stationary area of high pressure?

Weak winds, haze. Ns clouds. Thunderstorms, clear air and strong winds.

15. Which of the following types of cloud is considered middle level clouds in the temperate latitudes?

As, Ac St, Sc Ns, Ci

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

17. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system.

18. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Three. Five.

20. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

21. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge.

22. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

23. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. not identical. identical.

24. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic situation. topographic area. map projections.

25. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

26. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the marine poles. the geological poles. the magnetic poles.

27. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Moscow. Paris.

28. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field.

29. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing.

30. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind. with the wind from a side. against the wind.

31. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway.

32. For emergency landing You would prefer:

trees. buildings. water.

33. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing.

34. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which is landing or in the final approach to the landing. which received permission for landing approach. which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices.

35. A pilot must always have:

a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation. a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.

36. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

37. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

create a collision hazard. be less then 150m. restrict the other aircraft.

38. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m AGL 300 m STD 300 m AMSL

39. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Yes. No. Only in clouds.

40. A light aircraft can be steered by:

a pilot who holds a valid assessment on medical fitness or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a person authorized by the light aircraft operator in the presence of the pilot, or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum.

41. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„ a position that the afflicted person wants to take. a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position).

44. The telephone number of medical emergency service in the Czech Republic is:

150 155 158

45. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation. the process should be as fast as possible.

46. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. anywhere between the wound and heart. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart.

47. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N). to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to wave by any object of red color.

48. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The priority of an improvised transport is speed. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance.

49. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

50. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions).