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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. Induced drag:

arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference. arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft. arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft.

2. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

decreases. does not change. increases.

3. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is not changing. is changing because the wing banks in the same moment. is changing due to a change of trailing edge position.

4. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag.

5. The lift coefficient is influenced the most by:

the air foil thickness. the air foil curving. the speed of flow.

6. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

7. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive).

8. Lift is:

a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force. the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. an area resistance given by the angle of attack.

9. Mass storms occur:

mostly in the afternoon and evening in the hours of the highest ground temperatures. mostly during the night. anytime.

10. Isobars are lines on surface weather maps that connect points:

of the same temperature recalculated to the sea level. of the same humidity. of the same pressure recalculated to the sea level.

11. The form of precipitation falling out of vertically developed cloud type Cb - cumulonimbus is mostly:

rain and hail. light rain. drizzle.

12. Which of the following types of cloud is considered low level cloud?

St As Ns

13. Dangerous storm phenomena are:

strong updrafts with maximums in the upper half of CB cloud, stong turbulence, strong downdrafts with maximums near the CB cloudbase, frosts, electric characteristics of the Cb cloud. the density of the Cb cloud which consists of liquid and solid state of water. strong updrafts and hight of the Cb could.

14. Which of the layers of Earth's atmosphere is characterized by vertical movements?

Troposphere. Stratosphere. Tropopause.

15. In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

Gas into liquid. Solid substance into gas. Liquid into gas.

16. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake.

17. The take off control includes:

the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing.

18. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. increased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.

19. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse.

21. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight.

22. Comparative navigation involves:

comparing terrain with a map and vice versa. comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing the calculated times with the reality.

23. Course is measured in degrees from north:

counterclockwise. clockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west.

24. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

those with precise angles. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale.

25. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

There is no difference. 2 hours. 1 hour.

26. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic area. map projections. topographic situation.

27. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to locate and identify several landmarks. to focus on one landmark. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft.

28. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

29. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface.

30. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

31. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

in rapid uncontrolable rotation. under a Cumulonimbus cloud. after being blown behind a mountain ridge.

32. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

33. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences.

34. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight above the ground level. the hight according the local atmospheric pressure. the hight above the see level.

35. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map). in FL 125. in 1500 m AMSL.

36. TMA (Terminal Control Area)

can be flown under only with a two way radio communication with AFIS. cannot be flown under or over. can be flown under.

37. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground. to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport.

38. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the upper limit of the G class air space. a specified altitude. the ground surface.

39. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the operator. the head of air traffic. the aircraft commander (pilot).

40. From a sport aircraft (SLZ) it is forbidden:

to drop things between sunrise and sunset. to spray. to drop anything or spray, except under certain conditions.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil.

44. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet.

45. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status).

46. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. The priority of an improvised transport is speed.

47. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N). to wave by any object of red color.

48. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

by the lower end of chest bone. next to left nipple. in the middle of chest bone.

49. "Gasping breaths" mean:

individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state.

50. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage.