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Test - PL A

1. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

2. When air flow is laminar:

there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is a relative mix of streamlines. there is no relative mix of streamlines.

3. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

lift and overpressure. lift, mass and drag. the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag.

4. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

the velocity of flow. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients). total weight.

5. The chord is:

the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts. the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil. the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil.

6. Surface load:

indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight.

7. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

8. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km.

9. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Persistent rainfall. Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing. Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts.

10. Hazardous phenomena associated with a I. kind cold front are usually:

Cb - cumulonimbus clouds at the head of the front hidden in low stratiform clouds, turbulence and icing. strong gusty surface wind. Only low level clouds of stratiform types.

11. Which basic parameters and phenomena determine the weather inside air masses?

Temperature, humidity, vertical temperature gradient. Pressure, clouds and air density. Precipitations and visibility.

12. Stationary front is the one that:

is not moving or moves very slowly. is moving only clockwise. is moving in leaps.

13. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

Sc, Ns St, Cs Cu, Cb

14. Wind is given by:

the direction from which it blows and speed. the direction towards what it blows and speed. speed.

15. A cold front progresses faster than a warm front, the warm sector at the ground level gradually narrows and the warm air in this region is forced up into the higher layers. This process is called:

cyclone extinction. oclusion. cyclone filling.

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

17. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers.

18. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight.

19. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

20. What does the term „spin” mean?

Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall.

21. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

22. Geographical North and South:

do not change location. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. change location depending on annual periods.

23. Magnetic course is measured:

from bearing indicator. from prime meridian. from geographical north of local meridian.

24. The prime meridian is:

a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0.

25. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute.

26. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. counterclockwise. clockwise.

27. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

50 km 45 km 60 km

28. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to turn the glider against the wind.

29. For emergency landing You would prefer:

trees. water. buildings.

30. The reserve parachute is used so that:

By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

31. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences.

32. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the A risers or lines. wait until the glider stops itself. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers.

33. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

electric wires. water surface. a parking.

34. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator.

35. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud.

36. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at a flight outside the airport. at every flight. at every cross country flight.

37. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

create a collision hazard. restrict the other aircraft. be less then 150m.

38. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight.

39. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left. You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right.

40. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape. his paragliding harness. into a stretcher tied straight branches.

44. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are. First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help. If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious.

45. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions only.

46. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

The tourniquet needs tightening. We need to use another compress bandage. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up.

47. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body.

48. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen.

49. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture.

50. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. The priority of an improvised transport is speed. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance.