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Test - PL A

1. The chord is:

the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts. the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil.

2. Induced drag:

arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft. arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft. arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference.

3. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

decreases. increases. does not change.

4. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

5. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive).

6. Larger part of lift is generated:

above the aerofoil, around 2/3. above 2/3 of the aerofoil, around 55%. below the aerofoil, around 2/3.

7. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the air foil thickness and special aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the wing arrow and air foil thickness.

8. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

9. The decrease of temperature with altitude in a standard atmosphere definition - vertical temperature gradient - has a value of:

1,0° C / 100 m. 0,65° C / 100 m. 0,6° C / 100 m.

10. The part of cyclone between the warm and cold fronts is called:

the warm sector. the ridge of higher pressure. the front line.

11. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

in summer at midday. at noon. in winter at midday.

12. Coriolis force acting on the wind is:

the friction force. the centrifugal force. inertia force causing bodies movement deflection, thus also the air flow.

13. Turbulence is defined as:

forces acting on the aircraft in vertical directions. forces increasing the aircraft’s velocity. forces acting on the aircraft in different directions and giving this aircraft various supplementary accelerations.

14. Local isolated thunderstorms are mostly:

frontal air lift (cold front). frontal air lift (warm front). mass storms.

15. Which basic parameters and phenomena determine the weather inside air masses?

Temperature, humidity, vertical temperature gradient. Pressure, clouds and air density. Precipitations and visibility.

16. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering.

17. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. always the same.

18. What does the term „spin” mean?

A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall.

19. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

20. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased.

21. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

22. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain. accurate watch. accurate compass.

23. Geographical North and South:

are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. do not change location. change location depending on annual periods.

24. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

60 km 45 km 50 km

25. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

against the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left. with the wind.

26. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. measurements on a map. the compass needle free of any interferences.

27. Comparative navigation involves:

comparing terrain with a map and vice versa. comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing the calculated times with the reality.

28. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost.

29. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him.

30. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight.

31. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute.

32. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide.

33. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself. pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy. weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci

34. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud.

35. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority. from sunset to sunrise. in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset.

36. The paraglider canopy is damaged mostly by:

mice and other wild rodents. UV rays, mechanical abrasion and humidity. storage in dark and dry rooms.

37. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a sport pilot and a PG instructor.

38. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered but cannot be left.

39. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m STD 300 m AMSL 300 m AGL

40. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”. always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR. always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR.

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early.

43. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case.

44. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid.

45. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection.

46. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. The priority of an improvised transport is speed.

47. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart.

48. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond.

49. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.

50. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.