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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

the velocity of flow. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients). total weight.

2. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

parasitic drag and supportive drag. parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag.

3. The aircraft falls when:

the pilot makes too sharp turn. it gets over the critical angle of attack. the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed.

4. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

gravity force and lift plus drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift. lift and drag.

5. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

In the middle of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed. At the side parts of the glider.

6. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag.

7. Lift is:

a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force. the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. an area resistance given by the angle of attack.

8. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

9. The basic cause of mechanical turbulence is:

the air mass stratification. wind and configuration of terrain. the air mass humidity and temperature.

10. Coriolis force acting on the wind is:

inertia force causing bodies movement deflection, thus also the air flow. the friction force. the centrifugal force.

11. Dew point is:

a place over which a cloud will form. the height of the zero isotherm. the temperature to which air must be cooled to induce condensation.

12. What type of precipitation can be expected on an active cold front?

Drizzle. Showers and thunderstorms. Light persistent rain.

13. What will be the surface wind characteristics in the area where on the surface meteorological map there are isobars close together?

Strong wind blowing perpedicularly to the isobars. Strong wind blowing approximately along the isobars. Weak wind blowing along the isobars.

14. When climbing through the transition altitude the altimeter setting is changed. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter data?

It will decrease. It will increase. It will not be affected.

15. Clouds in troposphere form from:

water vapor. Oxygen. Nitrogen.

16. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

17. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

18. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

19. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

20. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

21. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

22. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

50 km 20 km 200 km

23. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

24. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. those with precise angles.

25. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to focus on one landmark. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to locate and identify several landmarks.

26. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

declination. negative hight, so called dephtines. alitude.

27. The prime meridian is:

a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0.

28. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre.

29. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn.

30. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

31. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind from a side. with the wind. against the wind.

32. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field.

33. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost.

34. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the head of air traffic. the operator. the aircraft commander (pilot).

35. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at flights outside the airport. with them at cross country flights. with them at every flight.

36. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every cross country flight. at a flight outside the airport. at every flight.

37. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a sport pilot and a PG instructor. a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training.

38. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

Not during an airport flight. Yes. No.

39. Restricted air space (LK R):

must not be passed through. can be passed through under specified conditions. must be passed through.

40. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services. We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help.

44. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the stabilized position. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid.

45. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs.

46. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet.

47. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“

48. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil.

49. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions).

50. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease. should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds. should be used for taking care of any injury.