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Test - PL A

1. At the critical angle of attack:

the lift coefficient sharply increases. the drag coefficient drops abruptly. the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly.

2. The resultant aerodynamic force consists of:

lift and weight. lift and drag. lift coefficient and weight.

3. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

increases. decreases. does not change.

4. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

0.25 kg/m3 4 kg/m3 0.4 kg/m3

5. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy. changes of the size of projected area of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy.

6. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it will fly 1 km in 10 s. it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground.

7. The lift coefficient is influenced the most by:

the air foil curving. the speed of flow. the air foil thickness.

8. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest. the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest.

9. What do we mean by the term "clear thermic"?

Turbulence associated with a windshear. An ascending thermal current not topped by a cumulus cloud. Strong gusty wind in a coud free environment.

10. The 10 m/s wind speed is:

36 km/h. 30 km/h. 33,3 km/h.

11. Isobars are lines on surface weather maps that connect points:

of the same pressure recalculated to the sea level. of the same temperature recalculated to the sea level. of the same humidity.

12. An aircraft is flying at a very warm day across the Alps. The weather is good and there is an anticyclone in the area. The aircraft is flying by a mountain at the hight of its summit. What value is the altimeter showing compared to the summit altitude?

A lower height than the summit altitude. A higher height than the summit altitude. The same height as the summit altitude.

13. Among the clouds with a great vertical development is:

Ac – altocumulus Cb – cumulonimbus Cc – cirocumulus

14. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Advection fog. Radiation fog. Frontal fog.

15. The valley wind is blowing:

across the valley up the mountain slopes. along the mountain valley axis at daytime up to the mountains (against the river stream). across the valley due to winds aloft.

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

17. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same.

18. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Seven. Three.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

21. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

22. The horizontal velocity is given:

in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in knots. in feet.

23. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

200 km 20 km 50 km

24. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

with the wind. against the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left.

25. Geographic coordinates indicate:

time zone position. certain place name. certain geographical location.

26. Magnetic course is measured:

from prime meridian. from bearing indicator. from geographical north of local meridian.

27. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

28. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway.

29. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a lonely tree. dense forest. a forest road.

30. The reserve parachute is used so that:

By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

31. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

32. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. using the reserve parachute.

33. If I stall the glider:

I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly.

34. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 95 (2900 m) FL 85 (2600 m) FL 125 (3800 m)

35. The minimum age of student for beginning of theoretical and practical paragliding training in the Czech Republic is:

14 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 15 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 16 years with the consent of his legal guardians.

36. A pilot must always have:

a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation.

37. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at flights outside the airport. with them at every flight. with them at cross country flights.

38. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically.

39. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner.

40. The aircraft, that is obliged by the rules to give way to another aircraft, must:

avoid by flying above or under or cross the other aircraft flight line at a sufficient distance. avoided so that the maintained vertical distance between aircrafts was 150 m. avoided so that the maintained horizontal distance between aircrafts was 300 m.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment. thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side. convenient position, thermal comfort, calming.

44. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too).

45. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the stabilized position. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid.

46. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.).

47. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always as a priority on any wound or fracture. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures.

48. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage.

49. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

forward head tilt. stabilised position. backward head tilt.

50. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle. put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage. fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage.