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Test - PL A

1. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

does not change. decreases. increases.

2. The resultant aerodynamic force consists of:

lift and drag. lift and weight. lift coefficient and weight.

3. Induced drag:

arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft. arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference. arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft.

4. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag.

5. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground. it will fly 1 km in 10 s.

6. The separation of streamlines is when:

turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow. the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil. the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape.

7. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

does not change. increases. decreases.

8. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

lift and drag. gravity force and lift plus drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift.

9. Condensed isobars on the synoptic map indicate:

high temperature difference. pressure level of the area. greater pressure difference and therefore stronger wind.

10. With increasing height, atmospheric pressure:

decreases and in the hight of 5.5 km is a half of its value at the see level. does not change. increases and in the hight of 5.5 km is double of its value at the see level.

11. At what altitude the barometric pressure reaches about a half the pressure to the mean sea level?

3000 m MSL 7000 m MSL 5500 m MSL

12. We call it unstable stratification when in unsaturated air:

an unsaturated particle, after removal of the external force, returns to its original position. an unsaturated particle stops at a level at which external force has ceased to act. an unsaturated air particle as it exits from the equilibrium position continues to climb even when the external force ceases to act.

13. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the lowest:

in temperate zones. above poles. above Equator areas.

14. Cooling speed of rising air saturated with water vapor is less than of unsaturated air because:

water vapor absorbs heat radiated by air. condensation releases heat. water vapor is not cooled as fast as dry air.

15. The land breeze:

blows during a day and is weaker than the see breeze. blows at night and is weaker than the see breeze. blows during a day and is stronger than the see breeze.

16. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse.

17. What does the term „spin” mean?

Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

19. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

20. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Five. Seven.

21. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

22. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic situation. topographic area. map projections.

23. Direction south is reported by:

180° 360° 090°

24. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

2 hours. There is no difference. 1 hour.

25. 045 degrees is direction:

north west. south west. north east.

26. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. those with precise angles.

27. Geographical meridian is:

a half of meridian circle. a circle around the globe. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis.

28. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. pull the second steering fully and then release both.

29. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

30. For emergency landing You would prefer:

trees. buildings. water.

31. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn.

32. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers.

33. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight.

34. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR. always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR. by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”.

35. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. the upper limit of the G class air space. a specified altitude.

36. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

0. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere. the airport altitude AMSL.

37. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

1,5 km 5 km 8 km

38. The paraglider canopy is damaged mostly by:

mice and other wild rodents. UV rays, mechanical abrasion and humidity. storage in dark and dry rooms.

39. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m AGL 300 m AMSL 300 m STD

40. LAA regulation, which governs the rules of flying a paraglider in the Czech Republic is called:

ZL - 3 PL - 2 ZL - 1

41. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle. put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage. fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage.

44. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to wave by any object of red color. to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N).

45. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident.

46. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

47. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

48. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.

49. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond. after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect.

50. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation. caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. the process should be as fast as possible.