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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the wing arrow and air foil thickness. the air foil thickness and special aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape.

2. The lift acts:

always upwards from the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the chord. always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil.

3. Induced drag:

arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft. arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft. arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference.

4. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord. An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back.

5. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

No. Yes. Only for tail wind.

6. Lift is:

the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force. an area resistance given by the angle of attack.

7. The optimal gliding ratio can be flown:

with just one angle of attack. with critical angle of attack. with two different angles of attack.

8. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

9. Which of the phenomena occurring on the II. kind cold front are particularly dangerous for low-flying aircraft?

Drop of cloud base, sometimes even to the ground. Strong turbulence limited to the narrow space of vortex - the microburst, with axis approximately at the base of Cb - cumulonimbus cloud. High pressure and temperature drop.

10. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

at noon. in summer at midday. in winter at midday.

11. When I. kind cold front passes, the precipitation zone is:

after the front line. at the front line. before the front line.

12. The air mass is called unstable if there are:

convective vertical motions in it. stratified clouds in it. inversions in it.

13. The speed of a thermal current depends on:

time of day and season. instability rate and air warming from the ground surface. uneven heating of cyclonic thermal convective clouds.

14. Precipitation coming off St-stratus layer of cloud is mostly:

drizzle. violent torrential rain. hail.

15. Hazardous phenomena associated with a I. kind cold front are usually:

strong gusty surface wind. Cb - cumulonimbus clouds at the head of the front hidden in low stratiform clouds, turbulence and icing. Only low level clouds of stratiform types.

16. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

17. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

18. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

19. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

20. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased.

21. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

22. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the geological poles. the marine poles. the magnetic poles.

23. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

24. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise. counterclockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west.

25. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. south west. north west.

26. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

perpendicularly to the wind from left. against the wind. with the wind.

27. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

28. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

29. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

30. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the A risers or lines. wait until the glider stops itself. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers.

31. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs.

32. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field.

33. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

34. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right.

35. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the head of air traffic. the aircraft commander (pilot). the operator.

36. TMA (Terminal Control Area)

can be flown under. can be flown under only with a two way radio communication with AFIS. cannot be flown under or over.

37. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age.

38. A pilot must always have:

a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation. a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.

39. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices. which is landing or in the final approach to the landing. which received permission for landing approach.

40. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

300 m 150 m except for ridge soaring. 150 m

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

42. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents.

43. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body. the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly.

44. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter.

45. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the body in extended position. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage.

46. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen.

47. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N). to wave by any object of red color. to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards.

48. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position. The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage.

49. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

anywhere between the wound and heart. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound.

50. The helmet of the afflicted:

should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck. should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting. must never be taken off.