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Test - PL A

1. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back. The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord. If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position.

2. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change. changes because effective bearing area is the same. changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change.

3. The optimal gliding ratio can be flown:

with critical angle of attack. with two different angles of attack. with just one angle of attack.

4. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease. the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase.

5. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is changing due to a change of trailing edge position. is changing because the wing banks in the same moment. is not changing.

6. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. its velocity is 6 m/s.

7. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

8. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

In the middle of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed. At the side parts of the glider.

9. How the air masses move in a warm front?

Cold air shifts above the warm air mass. Warm air shifts above the cold air mass. Warm air shifts below the cold air mass.

10. During summer in Central Europe, in the central part of a significant anticyclone we expect:

inversion fog, variable wind, night thunderstorms and strong thermics during a day. clear skies, strong winds, cold at night, warm at daytime and strong thermics. mostly sunny, light wind, high temperatures duding a day, weakening thermics.

11. The greatest concentration of condensation nuclei is:

above mountains. above oceans. near large urban areas (industrial areas).

12. The part of cyclone between the warm and cold fronts is called:

the front line. the ridge of higher pressure. the warm sector.

13. Which type of precipitation comes off water only containing clouds at mid-latitudes?

Intensive rain. Light rain with big drops. Drizzle.

14. Half of the weight of the earth's atmosphere is located in the bottom:

5 km 8 km 3 km

15. The main cause of atmospheric convection is:

uneven heating of the earth's surface of different colors. sufficient air heating on the earth's surface during unstable stratification. the day and night temperature difference.

16. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

17. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased. decreased.

18. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge.

19. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

20. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

21. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

22. The globe is:

a net of coordinate lines. ideal sphere. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles.

23. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

24. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

200 km 20 km 50 km

25. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic situation. map projections. topographic area.

26. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

true air speed. indicated air speed. ground speed.

27. Geographical meridian is:

a circle around the globe. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a half of meridian circle.

28. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. pull the A risers or lines. wait until the glider stops itself.

29. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. a lonely tree. dense forest.

30. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK.

31. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

32. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing.

33. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

under a Cumulonimbus cloud. in rapid uncontrolable rotation. after being blown behind a mountain ridge.

34. What is it CTR?

Terminal controlled area. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden. Control zone of an airport.

35. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

the airport altitude AMSL. 0. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere.

36. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud. at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground.

37. If two or more aircrafts heavier then air are approaching one airport with the intention to land and the avoidance rules do not apply, the priority of landing is as follows:

the aircraft flying higher gives way to the lower flying aircraft. the aircraft flying on left gives way to the aircraft flying from right. the slower aircraft gives way to the faster aircraft.

38. From a sport aircraft (SLZ) it is forbidden:

to drop anything or spray, except under certain conditions. to spray. to drop things between sunrise and sunset.

39. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority. from sunset to sunrise. in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset.

40. Flying above a gathering of people at such a height that would not allow a safe landing in case of danger without endangering pilots or people on the ground is:

possible only at an air show with a valid authorization issued. allowed. forbidden.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early.

43. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. in the middle of chest bone. by the lower end of chest bone.

44. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important).

45. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the body in extended position. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

46. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment.

47. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture.

48. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape. by standing with arms up in Y shape. by waving any object of bright color.

49. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration.

50. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.).