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Test - PL A

1. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

No. Yes. Only for tail wind.

2. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing when flying in wind. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same. is changing with weight changes.

3. The aircraft falls when:

the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed. the pilot makes too sharp turn. it gets over the critical angle of attack.

4. The angle of attack is:

the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line. the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow.

5. The lift coefficient is influenced the most by:

the air foil thickness. the speed of flow. the air foil curving.

6. Turbulent flow is:

when the air particles are not moving. the flow of air particles in different directions. the flow of air particles in the same direction.

7. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end.

8. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force.

9. During summer in Central Europe, in the central part of a significant anticyclone we expect:

inversion fog, variable wind, night thunderstorms and strong thermics during a day. clear skies, strong winds, cold at night, warm at daytime and strong thermics. mostly sunny, light wind, high temperatures duding a day, weakening thermics.

10. Which of the following types of cloud is considered middle level clouds in the temperate latitudes?

Ns, Ci As, Ac St, Sc

11. What temperature stratification is favorable for the occurence of vertical motions in the troposphere?

instable indifferent stable

12. The basic cause of cloud formation in the atmosphere is:

decrease of air temperature with height. achieving a state of saturation. achieving a state of saturation followed by water vapor condensation.

13. Among high level clouds are:

Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus Cc – cirrocumulus, Cs – cirrostratus St – stratus, Sc – stratocumulus

14. The air density of the atmosphere with altitude:

increases. doesn't change. decreases.

15. Humidity means:

the amount of water vapor in the air snowing precipitation fall

16. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

17. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

18. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

19. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope.

20. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

21. The take off control includes:

the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing.

22. Geographical North and South:

change location depending on annual periods. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. do not change location.

23. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

those with precise angles. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale.

24. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

true air speed. ground speed. indicated air speed.

25. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. not identical.

26. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. measurements on a map. the compass needle free of any interferences.

27. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. depending on the intensity of sunlight. with annual periods.

28. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers.

29. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

30. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway.

31. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost.

32. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide.

33. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself. pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy.

34. To recalculate a figure in meters into figure in feet we use the simplified formula:

(m x 3) : 10 (m x 3) + 10% (m : 10) x 3

35. Who is authorized to check a pilot's license or student document?

Paragliding operations inspector and Paragliding technical inspector of LAA CR, a person authorized by the Ministry of Transport or the CAA of the CR, Czech Police. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, person authorized of Ministry of Transport, Czech Police or local municipal authority personnel. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, Czech Police, Czech CAA inspector, a person authorized by an airport or property owner.

36. The dangerous airspace (LKD) is is an area where flying is:

dangerous. prohibited. restricted.

37. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

valid AIP or ICAO map. official CAA map. ADAC map.

38. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset. from sunset to sunrise. only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority.

39. Flying above a gathering of people at such a height that would not allow a safe landing in case of danger without endangering pilots or people on the ground is:

possible only at an air show with a valid authorization issued. forbidden. allowed.

40. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered but cannot be left. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

43. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N). to wave by any object of red color.

44. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. by the lower end of chest bone. in the middle of chest bone.

45. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services.

46. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective.

47. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2.

48. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are. First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help. If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious.

49. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

stabilised position. forward head tilt. backward head tilt.

50. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger. If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable.