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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The lift coefficient is influenced the most by:

the air foil curving. the air foil thickness. the speed of flow.

2. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio. the speed and drag ratio.

3. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

The lift is evenly distributed. At the side parts of the glider. In the middle of the glider.

4. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

0.25 kg/m3 4 kg/m3 0.4 kg/m3

5. When air flow is laminar:

there is no relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is a relative mix of streamlines.

6. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

lift and overpressure. lift, mass and drag. the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag.

7. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

decreases. does not change. increases.

8. Lift is:

the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. an area resistance given by the angle of attack. a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force.

9. What do we mean by the term "clear thermic"?

Strong gusty wind in a coud free environment. Turbulence associated with a windshear. An ascending thermal current not topped by a cumulus cloud.

10. Precipitation zone of a warm front is:

at the front line and it is short rainfall. mostly right after the front line and it is showers. before the front line and it is persistent rainfall.

11. In troposphere, at vertical rise of 100 m the pressure drop:

is the same in all altitudes. is lower in higher altitudes then in lower altitudes. is higher in higher altitudes then in lower altitudes.

12. The air density of the atmosphere with altitude:

doesn't change. decreases. increases.

13. What type of precipitation can be expected on an active cold front?

Drizzle. Light persistent rain. Showers and thunderstorms.

14. The boundary between two air masses, with the weather in one air mass significantly differing from the weather in the other air mass is called:

Front. Weather boundary. Air masses boundary.

15. Which types of clouds are typical for a warm front cloud system:

Ns – nimbostratus, As – altostratus, Cs – cirostratus Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cb – cumulonimbus Sc – stratocumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cc – cirocumulus

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

17. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased. increased.

18. What does the term „spin” mean?

A spiral. Symmetric paragider stall. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall.

19. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

20. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

21. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Five. Seven.

22. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain. accurate compass. accurate watch.

23. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

true air speed. indicated air speed. ground speed.

24. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. identical. not identical.

25. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

20 km 200 km 50 km

26. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

27. Direction south is reported by:

180° 090° 360°

28. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

a parking. electric wires. water surface.

29. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface.

30. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing.

31. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight.

32. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I release the steering continuously.

33. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. in rapid uncontrolable rotation. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

34. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN. to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR.

35. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the operator. the aircraft commander (pilot). the head of air traffic.

36. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every flight. at every cross country flight. at a flight outside the airport.

37. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

from the left. from the right. against the sun.

38. From a sport aircraft (SLZ) it is forbidden:

to drop anything or spray, except under certain conditions. to drop things between sunrise and sunset. to spray.

39. The dangerous airspace (LKD) is is an area where flying is:

prohibited. dangerous. restricted.

40. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight. The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

43. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

the highest possible frequency of compressions. timely starting and continuity of compressions. the deepest compressions.

44. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

lay the afflicted in the stabilized position. free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid.

45. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

46. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. in the middle of chest bone. by the lower end of chest bone.

47. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart.

48. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage.

49. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage. lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle. fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage.

50. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“