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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The main cause of the stall is always:

exceeding the critical angle of attack. decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider.

2. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

increases. does not change. decreases.

3. How the speed system works?

It increases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. It decreases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. Sometimes it deforms the aerofoil shape. It decreases the angle of attack by releasing the rear risers.

4. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing.

5. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

6. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag.

7. A paraglider stall occures when:

the glider overcomes the pilot when taking off. the pilot breaks too much. the speed system is pushed too fast.

8. Lift is:

a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force. the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. an area resistance given by the angle of attack.

9. What will be the surface wind characteristics in the area where on the surface meteorological map there are isobars close together?

Strong wind blowing perpedicularly to the isobars. Weak wind blowing along the isobars. Strong wind blowing approximately along the isobars.

10. Mass storms occur:

mostly during the night. mostly in the afternoon and evening in the hours of the highest ground temperatures. anytime.

11. The 10 m/s wind speed is:

36 km/h. 33,3 km/h. 30 km/h.

12. Characteristic typical for the troposphere is:

isothermal stratification. rise of pressure with hight. temperature drop with hight.

13. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

Sc, Ns Cu, Cb St, Cs

14. Among the clouds with a great vertical development is:

Ac – altocumulus Cc – cirocumulus Cb – cumulonimbus

15. Hazardous phenomena associated with a I. kind cold front are usually:

Cb - cumulonimbus clouds at the head of the front hidden in low stratiform clouds, turbulence and icing. strong gusty surface wind. Only low level clouds of stratiform types.

16. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

18. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

19. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge.

20. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

22. Time is reported:

in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute.

23. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

24. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

25. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. depending on the intensity of sunlight. with annual periods.

26. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

those with precise angles. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale.

27. 045 degrees is direction:

north west. south west. north east.

28. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

29. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. pull the second steering fully and then release both. release the steering continuously.

30. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull the steering fully. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

31. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing.

32. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind. against the wind. with the wind from a side.

33. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself. weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy.

34. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

35. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety. The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight.

36. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

60 degrees. 80 degrees. 70 degrees.

37. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

150 m 300 m 150 m except for ridge soaring.

38. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations.

39. Who is authorized to check a pilot's license or student document?

Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, Czech Police, Czech CAA inspector, a person authorized by an airport or property owner. Paragliding operations inspector and Paragliding technical inspector of LAA CR, a person authorized by the Ministry of Transport or the CAA of the CR, Czech Police. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, person authorized of Ministry of Transport, Czech Police or local municipal authority personnel.

40. The dangerous airspace (LKD) is is an area where flying is:

dangerous. restricted. prohibited.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

42. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. The priority of an improvised transport is speed.

44. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

gentle transportation to the place of professional help. fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions. to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss.

45. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

the process should be as fast as possible. caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation.

46. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat.

47. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state.

48. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

by the lower end of chest bone. next to left nipple. in the middle of chest bone.

49. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

50. The helmet of the afflicted:

must never be taken off. should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck. should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting.