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Test - PL A

1. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag.

2. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow.

3. The separation of streamlines is when:

the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil. turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow. the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape.

4. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

The lift is evenly distributed. In the middle of the glider. At the side parts of the glider.

5. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

6. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy. changes of the size of projected area of the canopy.

7. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio. the speed and drag ratio. the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio.

8. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord. An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back.

9. The speed of a thermal current depends on:

uneven heating of cyclonic thermal convective clouds. time of day and season. instability rate and air warming from the ground surface.

10. We call it unstable stratification when in unsaturated air:

an unsaturated particle stops at a level at which external force has ceased to act. an unsaturated particle, after removal of the external force, returns to its original position. an unsaturated air particle as it exits from the equilibrium position continues to climb even when the external force ceases to act.

11. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the greatest:

over the equatorial regions. over the poles. in the temperate zones.

12. The decrease of temperature with altitude in a standard atmosphere definition - vertical temperature gradient - has a value of:

0,65° C / 100 m. 1,0° C / 100 m. 0,6° C / 100 m.

13. The air density of the atmosphere with altitude:

doesn't change. decreases. increases.

14. Lentil shaped elongated clouds:

indicate strong wind at hight and wind gusts danger. especially in summer indicate coming of a dangerous occluded front. occur mainly in the tropics; in our latitudes they appear rarely in the spring at the sudden change in temperature.

15. Which of the following types of cloud is considered middle level clouds in the temperate latitudes?

As, Ac St, Sc Ns, Ci

16. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

18. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

19. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

20. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

21. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

22. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

23. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. south west. north west.

24. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

not identical. identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole.

25. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

indicated air speed. true air speed. ground speed.

26. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

perpendicularly to the wind from left. against the wind. with the wind.

27. 045 degrees is direction:

south west. north east. north west.

28. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both.

29. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly.

30. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

31. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind. against the wind. with the wind from a side.

32. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes.

33. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

34. Airport operations are:

all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area. all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area.

35. The dangerous airspace (LKD) is is an area where flying is:

dangerous. restricted. prohibited.

36. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight.

37. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

official CAA map. ADAC map. valid AIP or ICAO map.

38. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

39. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 95 (2900 m) FL 125 (3800 m) FL 85 (2600 m)

40. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the body in extended position.

44. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation. the process should be as fast as possible.

45. The best way of use of the „anti-shock” foil (thermal blanket) is:

The afflicted is tightly wraped into it including head, only face is uncovered. It is laid under the afflicted. The afflicted is carefully covered with it.

46. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider.

47. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We start the resuscitation immediately. We promptly transport him to the professional medical service. First we try to free the airway.

48. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position). If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain. If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it.

49. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration.

50. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions). 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions.