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Test - PL A

1. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

2. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force. the drag and the gravity force. the weight of the aircraft and lift.

3. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back. The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord.

4. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pulling the steering. Pushing the speed system. Releasing the steering.

5. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

increases. decreases. does not change.

6. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag. parasitic drag and supportive drag.

7. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

0.25 kg/m3 4 kg/m3 0.4 kg/m3

8. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

9. Anabatic flow is:

a gusty mountain breeze. the land breeze. the wind coming up the mountain slopes due to thermic.

10. On the northern hemisphere, the height of the troposphere, depending on latitude:

is the same during the whole year. increases from south to north. decreases from south to north.

11. In meteorology, storm is:

a phenomenon identical with the term "cold front”. a natural phenomenon accompanied by intensive rainfall and electrical discharges. the most significant manifestation of convection in the free atmosphere.

12. How the air masses move in a warm front?

Warm air shifts above the cold air mass. Cold air shifts above the warm air mass. Warm air shifts below the cold air mass.

13. Lentil shaped elongated clouds:

indicate strong wind at hight and wind gusts danger. occur mainly in the tropics; in our latitudes they appear rarely in the spring at the sudden change in temperature. especially in summer indicate coming of a dangerous occluded front.

14. The change of physical state water - water vapor is called:

sublimation condensation evaporation

15. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

in summer at midday. at noon. in winter at midday.

16. What does the term „spin” mean?

A spiral. Symmetric paragider stall. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall.

17. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

19. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

21. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Three. Five.

22. Geographical North and South:

are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. change location depending on annual periods. do not change location.

23. The globe is:

a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. a net of coordinate lines. ideal sphere.

24. The horizontal velocity is given:

in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in knots. in feet.

25. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

26. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. clockwise. counterclockwise.

27. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the marine poles. the geological poles. the magnetic poles.

28. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

wait until the glider stops itself. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. pull the A risers or lines.

29. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

30. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes.

31. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field.

32. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind.

33. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost.

34. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which received permission for landing approach. which is landing or in the final approach to the landing. which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices.

35. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m AGL 300 m STD 300 m AMSL

36. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 85 (2600 m) FL 95 (2900 m) FL 125 (3800 m)

37. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

valid AIP or ICAO map. ADAC map. official CAA map.

38. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the aircraft commander (pilot). the head of air traffic. the operator.

39. A pilot must always have:

a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation.

40. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a sport pilot and a PG instructor. a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.

44. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage.

45. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions. gentle transportation to the place of professional help. to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss.

46. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by standing with arms up in Y shape. by waving any object of bright color. by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape.

47. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute.

48. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority.

49. The helmet of the afflicted:

should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting. must never be taken off. should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck.

50. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.