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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive).

2. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

does not change. increases. decreases.

3. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

4. The lift on the aerofoil:

is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil.

5. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

6. The separation of streamlines is when:

the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape. turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow. the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil.

7. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the wing arrow and air foil thickness. aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the air foil thickness and special

8. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line.

9. In our latitudes a vertically developed Cb cloud can reaches the height of:

up to 15 km, or rarely even more. 4 km 1 km

10. On the northern hemisphere, the height of the troposphere, depending on latitude:

increases from south to north. decreases from south to north. is the same during the whole year.

11. A certain volume of moist but unsaturated air rises. Which of the following changes?

Absolute humidity. Mixing ratio. Relative humidity.

12. The land breeze:

blows at night and is weaker than the see breeze. blows during a day and is stronger than the see breeze. blows during a day and is weaker than the see breeze.

13. In meteorology, storm is:

a phenomenon identical with the term "cold front”. a natural phenomenon accompanied by intensive rainfall and electrical discharges. the most significant manifestation of convection in the free atmosphere.

14. The form of precipitation falling out of vertically developed cloud type Cb - cumulonimbus is mostly:

rain and hail. drizzle. light rain.

15. Condensed isobars on the synoptic map indicate:

greater pressure difference and therefore stronger wind. high temperature difference. pressure level of the area.

16. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake.

17. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Five. Three.

18. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

19. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

20. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

21. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

22. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

50 km 20 km 200 km

23. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. north west. south west.

24. Comparative navigation involves:

comparing the calculated times with the reality. comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing terrain with a map and vice versa.

25. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

measurements on a map. the compass needle free of any interferences. the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south.

26. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

depending on the intensity of sunlight. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods.

27. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic situation. map projections. topographic area.

28. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway.

29. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs.

30. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind.

31. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind.

32. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind from a side. with the wind. against the wind.

33. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

34. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every flight. at a flight outside the airport. at every cross country flight.

35. The aircraft, that is obliged by the rules to give way to another aircraft, must:

avoid by flying above or under or cross the other aircraft flight line at a sufficient distance. avoided so that the maintained vertical distance between aircrafts was 150 m. avoided so that the maintained horizontal distance between aircrafts was 300 m.

36. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service.

37. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

restrict the other aircraft. be less then 150m. create a collision hazard.

38. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the operator. the aircraft commander (pilot). the head of air traffic.

39. TMA (Terminal Control Area)

cannot be flown under or over. can be flown under. can be flown under only with a two way radio communication with AFIS.

40. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

1,5 km 5 km 8 km

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious. Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are. First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help.

44. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight.

45. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound.

46. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position). a position that the afflicted person wants to take. the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„

47. The helmet of the afflicted:

should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck. must never be taken off. should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting.

48. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. always as a priority on any wound or fracture. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger.

49. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position). If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain. If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it.

50. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions. to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss. gentle transportation to the place of professional help.