Check out how you stand with your knowledge to obtain a paragliding pilot's license.
Unsure or don't know the correct answer? Learn everything you need right in our online classroom.
Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pushing the speed system. Pulling the steering. Releasing the steering.

2. The main cause of the stall is always:

the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider. exceeding the critical angle of attack. decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight.

3. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

total weight. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients). the velocity of flow.

4. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics. that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight.

5. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts.

6. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

increases. does not change. decreases.

7. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground. it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it will fly 1 km in 10 s.

8. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

significant rise of forces in steering lines. decrease of steering forces. sudden increase of descent rate.

9. The stratification of air in an inversion layer is:

indifferent. unstable. stable.

10. Among the typical local winds belongs the wind called "Föhn":

It blows especially in vast dry plains in the autumn. It blows from the valley to the mountains. It blows from the mountains to the valley.

11. Increasing distance between isobars means that in the given area the air velocity will be:

slower. the distance between isobars tells nothing about the air velocity. faster.

12. Lentil shaped elongated clouds:

indicate strong wind at hight and wind gusts danger. occur mainly in the tropics; in our latitudes they appear rarely in the spring at the sudden change in temperature. especially in summer indicate coming of a dangerous occluded front.

13. Cooling speed of rising air saturated with water vapor is less than of unsaturated air because:

condensation releases heat. water vapor absorbs heat radiated by air. water vapor is not cooled as fast as dry air.

14. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

drizzle. strong showers. persistent rainfall.

15. Dew point is:

a place over which a cloud will form. the temperature to which air must be cooled to induce condensation. the height of the zero isotherm.

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

17. The take off control includes:

the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

18. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

19. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same.

20. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

22. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

with the wind. against the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left.

23. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to locate and identify several landmarks. to focus on one landmark. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft.

24. The globe is:

a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. ideal sphere. a net of coordinate lines.

25. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

45 km 50 km 60 km

26. Geographical North and South:

do not change location. change location depending on annual periods. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism.

27. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

1 hour. There is no difference. 2 hours.

28. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind.

29. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

after being blown behind a mountain ridge. in rapid uncontrolable rotation. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

30. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position.

31. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I release the steering continuously.

32. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

33. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

34. The minimum age of student for beginning of theoretical and practical paragliding training in the Czech Republic is:

16 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 14 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 15 years with the consent of his legal guardians.

35. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Only in clouds. No. Yes.

36. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 125 (3800 m) FL 85 (2600 m) FL 95 (2900 m)

37. Flying above a gathering of people at such a height that would not allow a safe landing in case of danger without endangering pilots or people on the ground is:

possible only at an air show with a valid authorization issued. forbidden. allowed.

38. Except for takeoff or landing, or except by permit issued by the Aviation Authority, a VFR flight must be conducted over the congested areas or gathering of people in the open air at a height that may not be less than:

150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

39. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

40. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the operator. the head of air traffic. the aircraft commander (pilot).

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better.

44. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

45. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery. the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move. we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest.

46. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.).

47. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain.

48. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status.

49. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape. into a stretcher tied straight branches. his paragliding harness.

50. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment. thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side.