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Test - PL A

1. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground. it will fly 1 km in 10 s. it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind.

2. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line. the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow.

3. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the drag and the gravity force. the weight of the aircraft and lift. the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force.

4. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest.

5. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the air foil thickness and special aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the wing arrow and air foil thickness.

6. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing. the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil.

7. The main cause of the stall is always:

exceeding the critical angle of attack. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider. decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight.

8. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed. the weight and lift ratio. the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider.

9. Isobars are lines on surface weather maps that connect points:

of the same temperature recalculated to the sea level. of the same pressure recalculated to the sea level. of the same humidity.

10. Low level cloud can be:

St – stratus Ac – altocumulus Ci – cirrus

11. Which type of precipitation comes off water only containing clouds at mid-latitudes?

Light rain with big drops. Drizzle. Intensive rain.

12. Coriolis force acting on the wind is:

the centrifugal force. inertia force causing bodies movement deflection, thus also the air flow. the friction force.

13. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of strong turbulence?

Cirrocumulus Nimbostratus Altocumulus lenticularis

14. The greatest concentration of condensation nuclei is:

near large urban areas (industrial areas). above mountains. above oceans.

15. The most common wind direction in the valley caused by thermal effects is:

during the night towards the hill. during the day towards the hill. during the day down the hill.

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

17. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

18. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Five. Three.

20. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

21. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering.

22. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

200 km 50 km 20 km

23. 225 degrees is direction:

south west. south east. north west.

24. The horizontal velocity is given:

in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in knots. in feet.

25. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Paris. Moscow.

26. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain place name. time zone position. certain geographical location.

27. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to locate and identify several landmarks. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to focus on one landmark.

28. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

29. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field.

30. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK.

31. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the A risers or lines. wait until the glider stops itself. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers.

32. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute.

33. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I release the steering continuously.

34. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner.

35. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. the upper limit of the G class air space. a specified altitude.

36. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

12 months for persons above 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age.

37. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

ADAC map. official CAA map. valid AIP or ICAO map.

38. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

nine months. five months. six months.

39. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right. You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left.

40. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight above the ground level. the hight according the local atmospheric pressure. the hight above the see level.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

stabilised position. backward head tilt. forward head tilt.

44. The helmet of the afflicted:

should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck. should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting. must never be taken off.

45. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter.

46. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. a priority first aid objective.

47. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly. the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body.

48. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“ „The tourniquet must hurt.“

49. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

the process should be as fast as possible. caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation.

50. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by waving any object of bright color. by standing with arms up in Y shape. by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape.