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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil. densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil.

2. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pushing the speed system. Releasing the steering. Pulling the steering.

3. In a normal steady flight:

there is overpressure on the upper and lower surface of the wing. there is overpressure on the upper surface and negative pressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is negative pressure on the upper surface and overpressure on the lower surface of the wing.

4. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

increases. decreases. does not change.

5. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

6. Lift is:

the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile. a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force. an area resistance given by the angle of attack.

7. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface. is a relationship between span and air foil thickness.

8. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

lift, mass and drag. the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag. lift and overpressure.

9. Lentil shaped elongated clouds:

indicate strong wind at hight and wind gusts danger. especially in summer indicate coming of a dangerous occluded front. occur mainly in the tropics; in our latitudes they appear rarely in the spring at the sudden change in temperature.

10. Anabatic flow is:

the wind coming up the mountain slopes due to thermic. a gusty mountain breeze. the land breeze.

11. In practice we converse wind speed in m/s into kt by formula:

1 m/s ~ 1 kt 1 m/s ~ 2 kt 1 m/s ~ 3 kt

12. At a stable temperature stratification and strong wind which increases with height, behind a terrain obstacle occures a flow fenomenon called:

Vortex. Wave. Turbulence.

13. The stratification of air in an inversion layer is:

stable. unstable. indifferent.

14. What do we mean by the term "clear thermic"?

An ascending thermal current not topped by a cumulus cloud. Turbulence associated with a windshear. Strong gusty wind in a coud free environment.

15. Saturated adiabatic curve is showing the change in temperature with height of value:

0,65 °C / 100 m of hight. 1,00 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,60 °C / 100 m of hight.

16. When entering a thermal current:

the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake.

17. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

18. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

19. What does the term „spin” mean?

Symmetric paragider stall. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. A spiral.

20. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system.

21. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air.

22. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

45 km 60 km 50 km

23. Time is reported:

in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute.

24. Geographical North and South:

do not change location. change location depending on annual periods. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism.

25. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

true air speed. ground speed. indicated air speed.

26. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

those with precise angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles.

27. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to focus on one landmark. to locate and identify several landmarks. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft.

28. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers.

29. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift.

30. If I stall the glider:

I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly.

31. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

32. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing.

33. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the A risers or lines. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. wait until the glider stops itself.

34. Airport operations are:

all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area.

35. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety. The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight.

36. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight above the ground level. the hight above the see level. the hight according the local atmospheric pressure.

37. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

be less then 150m. restrict the other aircraft. create a collision hazard.

38. If two or more aircrafts heavier then air are approaching one airport with the intention to land and the avoidance rules do not apply, the priority of landing is as follows:

the aircraft flying on left gives way to the aircraft flying from right. the aircraft flying higher gives way to the lower flying aircraft. the slower aircraft gives way to the faster aircraft.

39. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport.

40. From a sport aircraft (SLZ) it is forbidden:

to spray. to drop things between sunrise and sunset. to drop anything or spray, except under certain conditions.

41. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound.

44. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. always as a priority on any wound or fracture. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger.

45. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

46. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly.

47. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions).

48. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

the highest possible frequency of compressions. timely starting and continuity of compressions. the deepest compressions.

49. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions.

50. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).