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Test - PL A

1. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

does not change. decreases. increases.

2. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force. the weight of the aircraft and lift. the drag and the gravity force.

3. The chord is:

the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts.

4. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts.

5. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force.

6. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it will fly 1 km in 10 s. it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground.

7. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

The lift is evenly distributed. At the side parts of the glider. In the middle of the glider.

8. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

negative pressure. no pressure. overpressure.

9. The decrease of temperature with altitude in a standard atmosphere definition - vertical temperature gradient - has a value of:

1,0° C / 100 m. 0,65° C / 100 m. 0,6° C / 100 m.

10. What prevents the air flow from areas of high pressure directly into the area of low air pressure?

Friction on the earth's surface. The Coriolis force. The force caused by the pressure gradient.

11. In meteorology, storm is:

a phenomenon identical with the term "cold front”. the most significant manifestation of convection in the free atmosphere. a natural phenomenon accompanied by intensive rainfall and electrical discharges.

12. Characteristic typical for the troposphere is:

temperature drop with hight. rise of pressure with hight. isothermal stratification.

13. With increasing altitude the wind speed usually:

decreases. increases. increases in the summer and decreases in the winter.

14. How the air masses move in a warm front?

Warm air shifts above the cold air mass. Warm air shifts below the cold air mass. Cold air shifts above the warm air mass.

15. The 10 m/s wind speed is:

30 km/h. 33,3 km/h. 36 km/h.

16. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

17. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain.

18. What does the term „spin” mean?

Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. A spiral. Symmetric paragider stall.

19. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind.

20. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased.

21. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

22. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

perpendicularly to the wind from left. against the wind. with the wind.

23. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

24. Geographical North and South:

change location depending on annual periods. do not change location. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism.

25. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

map projections. topographic area. topographic situation.

26. 045 degrees is direction:

south west. north west. north east.

27. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. south west. north west.

28. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

29. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences.

30. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface.

31. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

32. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

33. For emergency landing You would prefer:

buildings. trees. water.

34. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every cross country flight. at a flight outside the airport. at every flight.

35. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility.

36. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

37. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the operator. the head of air traffic. the aircraft commander (pilot).

38. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m AMSL 300 m STD 300 m AGL

39. The minimum age of student for beginning of theoretical and practical paragliding training in the Czech Republic is:

16 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 15 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 14 years with the consent of his legal guardians.

40. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight above the see level. the hight above the ground level. the hight according the local atmospheric pressure.

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.

44. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by waving any object of bright color. by standing with arms up in Y shape. by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape.

45. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N). to wave by any object of red color.

46. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. anywhere between the wound and heart. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart.

47. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil.

48. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better.

49. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery. the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move. we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest.

50. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain. If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position). If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it.