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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground. it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it will fly 1 km in 10 s.

2. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the chord. always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil. always upwards from the aerofoil.

3. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same. is changing when flying in wind. is changing with weight changes.

4. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

5. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

6. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

7. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

4 kg/m3 0.4 kg/m3 0.25 kg/m3

8. The chord is:

the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts. the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil.

9. During summer in Central Europe, in the central part of a significant anticyclone we expect:

inversion fog, variable wind, night thunderstorms and strong thermics during a day. clear skies, strong winds, cold at night, warm at daytime and strong thermics. mostly sunny, light wind, high temperatures duding a day, weakening thermics.

10. Low level cloud can be:

Ci – cirrus Ac – altocumulus St – stratus

11. In the area of high pressure in the northern hemisphere the wind close to the ground is blowing:

counter clockwise. clockwise. strait out from the middle of high pressure in the whole area.

12. In troposphere, at vertical rise of 100 m the pressure drop:

is the same in all altitudes. is lower in higher altitudes then in lower altitudes. is higher in higher altitudes then in lower altitudes.

13. Increasing distance between isobars means that in the given area the air velocity will be:

faster. the distance between isobars tells nothing about the air velocity. slower.

14. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

drizzle. strong showers. persistent rainfall.

15. A prerequisite for the condensation of the saturated water vapor in the troposphere is the presence of condensation nuclei which are:

liquid particles. solid particles. solid and liquid particles.

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

17. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

18. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind.

19. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

20. What does the term „spin” mean?

Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral.

21. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Five. Three.

22. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

ground speed. true air speed. indicated air speed.

23. The prime meridian is:

a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England.

24. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. south west. north west.

25. Time is reported:

in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec.

26. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

depending on the intensity of sunlight. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods.

27. Magnetic course is measured:

from bearing indicator. from geographical north of local meridian. from prime meridian.

28. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind.

29. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide.

30. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field.

31. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

32. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs.

33. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket and a flare.

34. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. can be entered but cannot be left.

35. If two or more aircrafts heavier then air are approaching one airport with the intention to land and the avoidance rules do not apply, the priority of landing is as follows:

the aircraft flying on left gives way to the aircraft flying from right. the slower aircraft gives way to the faster aircraft. the aircraft flying higher gives way to the lower flying aircraft.

36. To recalculate a figure in meters into figure in feet we use the simplified formula:

(m x 3) + 10% (m : 10) x 3 (m x 3) : 10

37. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

70 degrees. 60 degrees. 80 degrees.

38. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. a specified altitude. the upper limit of the G class air space.

39. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules.

40. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which received permission for landing approach. which is landing or in the final approach to the landing. which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing.

43. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection.

44. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage.

45. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

the process should be as fast as possible. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation. caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway.

46. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

47. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger.

48. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape. his paragliding harness. into a stretcher tied straight branches.

49. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

50. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move. we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery. we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest.