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Test - PL A

1. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force.

2. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km.

3. How the speed system works?

It increases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. It decreases the angle of attack by releasing the rear risers. It decreases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. Sometimes it deforms the aerofoil shape.

4. The aircraft falls when:

the pilot makes too sharp turn. the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed. it gets over the critical angle of attack.

5. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease.

6. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

thrust and weight, drag and lift. lift and drag. gravity force and lift plus drag.

7. The chord is:

the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts.

8. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

decreases. stays the same. increases.

9. What weather conditions are expected in temperate latitudes over land in summer in the middle of a stationary area of high pressure?

Thunderstorms, clear air and strong winds. Ns clouds. Weak winds, haze.

10. What are the other two conditions, besides forces causing air lift, necessary for the creation of a thunderstorm?

Unstable conditions and high air humidity. Unstable conditions and low air pressure. Stable conditions and high air pressure.

11. Coriolis force acting on the wind is:

the friction force. inertia force causing bodies movement deflection, thus also the air flow. the centrifugal force.

12. Cooling speed of rising air saturated with water vapor is less than of unsaturated air because:

water vapor is not cooled as fast as dry air. condensation releases heat. water vapor absorbs heat radiated by air.

13. The stratification of air in an inversion layer is:

unstable. indifferent. stable.

14. What vertical temperature stratification is typical for advection fog?

Isothermy. Drop of temperature with altitude. Inversion.

15. Thermal turbulence originates:

in uneven heating of the Earth surface. in air heated by the ground in unstable air conditions. in a hilly terrain.

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

17. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

18. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

19. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain.

20. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

21. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge.

22. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

indicated air speed. true air speed. ground speed.

23. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground.

24. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

map projections. topographic situation. topographic area.

25. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. not identical. identical.

26. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

alitude. negative hight, so called dephtines. declination.

27. Geographical North and South:

change location depending on annual periods. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. do not change location.

28. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears.

29. The reserve parachute is used so that:

By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated.

30. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

31. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

dense forest. a forest road. a lonely tree.

32. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

33. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight.

34. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

5 km 8 km 1,5 km

35. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a sport pilot and a PG instructor. a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training.

36. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone

37. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

from the right. against the sun. from the left.

38. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

a specified altitude. the ground surface. the upper limit of the G class air space.

39. Restricted air space (LK R):

must not be passed through. must be passed through. can be passed through under specified conditions.

40. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision. The course must be kept but speed can be changed. These conditions must not be changed.

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

1210 112 155

44. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter.

45. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body. the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly.

46. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. always as a priority on any wound or fracture.

47. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger. If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable.

48. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

into a stretcher tied straight branches. his paragliding harness. the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape.

49. The helmet of the afflicted:

should be taken off only by gente tilting nad twisting. should be taken off by pulling in the long axis of the body with permanent fixation of the head and neck. must never be taken off.

50. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the body in extended position.