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Test - PL A

1. At the critical angle of attack:

the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly. the drag coefficient drops abruptly. the lift coefficient sharply increases.

2. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

3. The angle of attack is:

the angle between the aerofoil’s chord and the oncoming flow. the angle between aerofoil’s chord and the horizon line. the angle between the oncoming flow and the horizon line.

4. Surface load:

indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area.

5. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

In the middle of the glider. At the side parts of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed.

6. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

decreases. increases. stays the same.

7. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease.

8. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back. If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord.

9. Clouds classified as high level clouds constitute of:

hail. supercooled water droplets. ice crystals.

10. What are the other two conditions, besides forces causing air lift, necessary for the creation of a thunderstorm?

Stable conditions and high air pressure. Unstable conditions and low air pressure. Unstable conditions and high air humidity.

11. Hazardous phenomena associated with a I. kind cold front are usually:

Cb - cumulonimbus clouds at the head of the front hidden in low stratiform clouds, turbulence and icing. strong gusty surface wind. Only low level clouds of stratiform types.

12. The most common wind direction in the valley caused by thermal effects is:

during the day towards the hill. during the night towards the hill. during the day down the hill.

13. Stationary front is the one that:

is moving in leaps. is moving only clockwise. is not moving or moves very slowly.

14. When climbing through the transition altitude the altimeter setting is changed. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter data?

It will decrease. It will not be affected. It will increase.

15. At what altitude the barometric pressure reaches about a half the pressure to the mean sea level?

5500 m MSL 7000 m MSL 3000 m MSL

16. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

18. The take off control includes:

the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

19. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse.

20. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

21. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased. increased.

22. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. not identical.

23. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

with the wind. against the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left.

24. Geographical meridian is:

a circle around the globe. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a half of meridian circle.

25. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise. counterclockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west.

26. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation.

27. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

28. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway.

29. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

30. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute.

31. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

32. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

33. The reserve parachute is used so that:

By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

34. A pilot must always have:

a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation.

35. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the upper limit of the G class air space. a specified altitude. the ground surface.

36. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

the airport altitude AMSL. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere. 0.

37. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a sport pilot and a PG instructor. a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training.

38. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in 1500 m AMSL. in FL 125. in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map).

39. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground. at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically.

40. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

42. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

43. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs.

44. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape. his paragliding harness. into a stretcher tied straight branches.

45. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons. they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot.

46. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We start the resuscitation immediately. We promptly transport him to the professional medical service. First we try to free the airway.

47. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

48. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it. If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position). If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain.

49. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid.

50. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

by the lower end of chest bone. next to left nipple. in the middle of chest bone.