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Test - PL A

1. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the weight of the aircraft and lift. the drag and the gravity force. the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force.

2. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

3. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

4. When air flow is laminar:

there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is no relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines.

5. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases.

6. The resultant aerodynamic force consists of:

lift coefficient and weight. lift and weight. lift and drag.

7. A paraglider stall occures when:

the speed system is pushed too fast. the glider overcomes the pilot when taking off. the pilot breaks too much.

8. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km.

9. Cooling speed of rising air saturated with water vapor is less than of unsaturated air because:

condensation releases heat. water vapor is not cooled as fast as dry air. water vapor absorbs heat radiated by air.

10. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Advection fog. Radiation fog. Frontal fog.

11. What do we mean by the term "clear thermic"?

Strong gusty wind in a coud free environment. An ascending thermal current not topped by a cumulus cloud. Turbulence associated with a windshear.

12. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

drizzle. persistent rainfall. strong showers.

13. The stratification of air in an inversion layer is:

unstable. indifferent. stable.

14. With increasing altitude the wind speed usually:

increases. decreases. increases in the summer and decreases in the winter.

15. In the definition of standard atmosphere the pressure and temperature values at mean sea level are:

1015 hPa, +10°C 1013,25 hPa, +15°C 1013,25 hPa, 0°C

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

17. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

19. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight.

20. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

21. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

22. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise. counterclockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west.

23. The horizontal velocity is given:

in knots. in feet. in km/h, MPH or knots (kts).

24. 225 degrees is direction:

south west. north west. south east.

25. Magnetic course is measured:

from prime meridian. from geographical north of local meridian. from bearing indicator.

26. Geographical meridian is:

a circle around the globe. a half of meridian circle. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis.

27. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the geological poles. the magnetic poles. the marine poles.

28. For emergency landing You would prefer:

water. trees. buildings.

29. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

30. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight.

31. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind. with the wind from a side. against the wind.

32. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

33. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

34. Except for takeoff or landing, or except by permit issued by the Aviation Authority, a VFR flight must be conducted over the congested areas or gathering of people in the open air at a height that may not be less than:

300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft. 150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

35. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

No. Only in clouds. Yes.

36. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

8 km 5 km 1,5 km

37. Airport operations are:

all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area. all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport.

38. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at flights outside the airport. with them at every flight. with them at cross country flights.

39. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

40. Czech abbrevation SLZ means:

Sportovní Létající Zařízení = Sport Flying Equipment Stálé Letové Zabezpečení = Permanent Flight Security Společná Letová Zóna = Common Flight Zone

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

43. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important).

44. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

45. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We start the resuscitation immediately. First we try to free the airway. We promptly transport him to the professional medical service.

46. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage. fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage. lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle.

47. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too).

48. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds. should be used for taking care of any injury. are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease.

49. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond.

50. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape. by waving any object of bright color. by standing with arms up in Y shape.