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Test - PL A

1. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

2. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

total weight. the velocity of flow. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients).

3. Induced drag:

arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference. arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft. arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft.

4. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

thrust and weight, drag and lift. gravity force and lift plus drag. lift and drag.

5. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pushing the speed system. Pulling the steering. Releasing the steering.

6. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end.

7. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

does not change. decreases. increases.

8. Turbulent flow is:

when the air particles are not moving. the flow of air particles in the same direction. the flow of air particles in different directions.

9. What type of precipitation can be expected on an active cold front?

Drizzle. Light persistent rain. Showers and thunderstorms.

10. On the northern hemisphere, the height of the troposphere, depending on latitude:

increases from south to north. decreases from south to north. is the same during the whole year.

11. What ground level weather is usually associated with a permanent area of high pressure over the mainland in winter?

Fog tendency and low St-type cloudiness. Thunderstorms. Ns cloudiness with permanent rain.

12. The most common wind direction in the valley caused by thermal effects is:

during the day down the hill. during the day towards the hill. during the night towards the hill.

13. Coriolis force acting on the wind is:

the centrifugal force. the friction force. inertia force causing bodies movement deflection, thus also the air flow.

14. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts. Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing. Persistent rainfall.

15. Precipitation zone of a warm front is:

before the front line and it is persistent rainfall. at the front line and it is short rainfall. mostly right after the front line and it is showers.

16. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

17. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

18. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same.

19. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

20. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

21. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

22. Magnetic course is measured:

from geographical north of local meridian. from prime meridian. from bearing indicator.

23. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute. in degrees.

24. The prime meridian is:

meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0.

25. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

alitude. negative hight, so called dephtines. declination.

26. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

indicated air speed. true air speed. ground speed.

27. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the compass needle free of any interferences. measurements on a map. the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south.

28. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket and a flare.

29. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

30. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. dense forest. a lonely tree.

31. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both.

32. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind.

33. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly.

34. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in 1500 m AMSL. in FL 125. in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map).

35. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service.

36. The paraglider canopy is damaged mostly by:

storage in dark and dry rooms. mice and other wild rodents. UV rays, mechanical abrasion and humidity.

37. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority. in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset. from sunset to sunrise.

38. What is it CTR?

Control zone of an airport. Terminal controlled area. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden.

39. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR.

40. In G class airspace there is:

a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL. a request of permanent two way connection. no request of connection.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

42. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents.

43. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation. the process should be as fast as possible.

44. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger.

45. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

backward head tilt. forward head tilt. stabilised position.

46. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always as a priority on any wound or fracture.

47. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection.

48. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain.

49. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil.

50. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status).