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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. When air flow is laminar:

there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is no relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines.

2. How the speed system works?

It decreases the angle of attack by releasing the rear risers. It increases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. It decreases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. Sometimes it deforms the aerofoil shape.

3. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag.

4. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

parasitic drag and supportive drag. parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag.

5. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts.

6. At the critical angle of attack:

the drag coefficient drops abruptly. the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly. the lift coefficient sharply increases.

7. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing. the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil.

8. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

9. The change of physical state water vapor - water is called:

condensation crystallization solidification

10. We talk about stable air mass if following applies:

There are favorable conditions for ascending currents formation. There is convection forming in the air. There are unfavorable conditions for ascending currents formation.

11. With increasing altitude the wind speed usually:

decreases. increases. increases in the summer and decreases in the winter.

12. Dangerous storm phenomena are:

strong updrafts with maximums in the upper half of CB cloud, stong turbulence, strong downdrafts with maximums near the CB cloudbase, frosts, electric characteristics of the Cb cloud. strong updrafts and hight of the Cb could. the density of the Cb cloud which consists of liquid and solid state of water.

13. If a paraglider or powered paraglider pilot sees a Cumulonimbus cloud while flying, he should:

fly around the storm area in a safe distance. fly under the cloud in a safe vertical distance from its cloud base. land on a suitable landing field as soon as possible.

14. The basic cause of mechanical turbulence is:

the air mass humidity and temperature. wind and configuration of terrain. the air mass stratification.

15. Which of the following processes in the air layer may lead to the formation of cumulus and cumulonimbus cloudiness?

Stable air layers lifting on frontal boundary. Subsidence. Convection.

16. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse.

17. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

18. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain.

19. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

20. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers.

21. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

22. The prime meridian is:

a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England.

23. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

20 km 50 km 200 km

24. The horizontal velocity is given:

in feet. in knots. in km/h, MPH or knots (kts).

25. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to locate and identify several landmarks. to focus on one landmark.

26. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic area. map projections. topographic situation.

27. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the geological poles. the marine poles. the magnetic poles.

28. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both.

29. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears.

30. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

31. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines.

32. For emergency landing You would prefer:

water. buildings. trees.

33. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost.

34. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m AGL 300 m AMSL 300 m STD

35. In G class airspace there is:

a request of permanent two way connection. a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL. no request of connection.

36. If two or more aircrafts heavier then air are approaching one airport with the intention to land and the avoidance rules do not apply, the priority of landing is as follows:

the aircraft flying higher gives way to the lower flying aircraft. the aircraft flying on left gives way to the aircraft flying from right. the slower aircraft gives way to the faster aircraft.

37. LAA regulation, which governs the rules of flying a paraglider in the Czech Republic is called:

PL - 2 ZL - 3 ZL - 1

38. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the upper limit of the G class air space. the ground surface. a specified altitude.

39. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

0. the airport altitude AMSL. the airport altitude in standard atmosphere.

40. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

8 km 5 km 1,5 km

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

43. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2.

44. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

backward head tilt. forward head tilt. stabilised position.

45. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We promptly transport him to the professional medical service. We start the resuscitation immediately. First we try to free the airway.

46. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute.

47. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„ a position that the afflicted person wants to take. a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position).

48. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always as a priority on any wound or fracture. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures.

49. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the body in extended position.

50. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond. if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years.