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Test - PL A

1. The resultant aerodynamic force consists of:

lift and weight. lift coefficient and weight. lift and drag.

2. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil. always upwards from the aerofoil. always perpendicularly to the chord.

3. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

stays the same. increases. decreases.

4. The separation of streamlines is when:

the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil. the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape. turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow.

5. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

At the side parts of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed. In the middle of the glider.

6. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pulling the steering. Pushing the speed system. Releasing the steering.

7. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the wing arrow and air foil thickness. the air foil thickness and special aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape.

8. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag.

9. The part of cyclone between the warm and cold fronts is called:

the warm sector. the front line. the ridge of higher pressure.

10. What thunder storms move forward the fastest?

Frontal storms. Orographic storms. Mass storms.

11. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

drizzle. persistent rainfall. strong showers.

12. Which of the following types of cloud is considered middle level clouds in the temperate latitudes?

Ns, Ci As, Ac St, Sc

13. Which types of clouds are typical for a warm front cloud system:

Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cb – cumulonimbus Ns – nimbostratus, As – altostratus, Cs – cirostratus Sc – stratocumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cc – cirocumulus

14. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the greatest:

over the poles. in the temperate zones. over the equatorial regions.

15. Turbulence is defined as:

forces increasing the aircraft’s velocity. forces acting on the aircraft in different directions and giving this aircraft various supplementary accelerations. forces acting on the aircraft in vertical directions.

16. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

17. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

18. What does the term „spin” mean?

Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral.

19. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.

20. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

21. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system.

22. The horizontal velocity is given:

in knots. in feet. in km/h, MPH or knots (kts).

23. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

1 hour. 2 hours. There is no difference.

24. Geographical meridian is:

a circle around the globe. a half of meridian circle. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis.

25. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. those with precise angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale.

26. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in degrees. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute.

27. Geographical North and South:

change location depending on annual periods. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. do not change location.

28. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself. weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy.

29. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

electric wires. a parking. water surface.

30. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. pull the second steering fully and then release both.

31. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

32. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. a lonely tree. dense forest.

33. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface.

34. After landing at the airport, the altimeter set to the airport QFE indicates:

the airport altitude in standard atmosphere. 0. the airport altitude AMSL.

35. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground. at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically.

36. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at flights outside the airport. with them at cross country flights. with them at every flight.

37. In G class airspace there is:

a request of permanent two way connection. no request of connection. a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL.

38. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

8 km 5 km 1,5 km

39. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight.

40. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every cross country flight. at a flight outside the airport. at every flight.

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration.

44. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

should be used for taking care of any injury. should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds. are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease.

45. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

in the middle of chest bone. by the lower end of chest bone. next to left nipple.

46. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

The tourniquet needs tightening. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. We need to use another compress bandage.

47. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body. placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight.

48. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil.

49. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment. convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side.

50. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.