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Test - PL A

1. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

thrust and weight, drag and lift. lift and drag. gravity force and lift plus drag.

2. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

0.25 kg/m3 0.4 kg/m3 4 kg/m3

3. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest. the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall.

4. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the speed and drag ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio.

5. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts.

6. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase.

7. In a normal steady flight:

there is overpressure on the upper surface and negative pressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is negative pressure on the upper surface and overpressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is overpressure on the upper and lower surface of the wing.

8. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

total weight. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients). the velocity of flow.

9. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

drizzle. strong showers. persistent rainfall.

10. A passing cold front with active storm manifestations is reflected by:

no change in temperature, slight pressure decrease and slight wind speed decrease without gusts. temperature decrease, strong athmopheric pressure decrease followed by its increase, strong wind speed increase with gusts. a temperature decrease later followed by its increase, no change in athmospheric pressure, wind fading.

11. Condensed isobars on the synoptic map indicate:

high temperature difference. pressure level of the area. greater pressure difference and therefore stronger wind.

12. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is called:

stratosphere. mesosphere. troposphere.

13. Which of the following cloud types may reach up into the stratosphere?

Cumulonimbus Cirrostratus Cumulus

14. Low level cloud can be:

Ci – cirrus Ac – altocumulus St – stratus

15. What type of precipitation can be expected on an active cold front?

Light persistent rain. Drizzle. Showers and thunderstorms.

16. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

17. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope.

18. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

19. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

20. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake.

22. The globe is:

ideal sphere. a net of coordinate lines. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles.

23. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground.

24. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

map projections. topographic area. topographic situation.

25. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the geological poles. the magnetic poles. the marine poles.

26. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

perpendicularly to the wind from left. with the wind. against the wind.

27. Geographical North and South:

are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. do not change location. change location depending on annual periods.

28. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn.

29. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind.

30. If I stall the glider:

I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly.

31. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both.

32. For emergency landing You would prefer:

water. buildings. trees.

33. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him.

34. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Only in clouds. No. Yes.

35. If two aircrafts are flying on lines facing each other or approximately such, each of them should give way by changing its course to the:

right. side which is more suitable for avoiding a crash. left.

36. Flying above a gathering of people at such a height that would not allow a safe landing in case of danger without endangering pilots or people on the ground is:

allowed. forbidden. possible only at an air show with a valid authorization issued.

37. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

Not during an airport flight. Yes. No.

38. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

The course must be kept but speed can be changed. This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision. These conditions must not be changed.

39. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the upper limit of the G class air space. the ground surface. a specified altitude.

40. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

42. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early.

43. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. always as a priority on any wound or fracture. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger.

44. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment.

45. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body.

46. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider. Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger.

47. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). hanging in a triangular bandage.

48. Choose the true statement about a position of a serious injury afflicted:

If the afflicted is communicating he should always be placed into position on the side (the "stabilized" or "recovery" position). If the afflicted is unconscious, he should always be placed in "anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible to restore blood flow to the brain. If the afflicted person actively takes some position, we do not prevent it.

49. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration.

50. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better.