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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil.

2. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface. is a relationship between span and air foil thickness.

3. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

thrust and weight, drag and lift. gravity force and lift plus drag. lift and drag.

4. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back. If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord.

5. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pushing the speed system. Releasing the steering. Pulling the steering.

6. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag. parasitic drag and supportive drag.

7. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

Only for tail wind. No. Yes.

8. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag.

9. Which of these cloud species belong among clouds of crystal composition?

Ns - nimbostratus, As - altostratus Cb - cumulonimbus, Ac - altocumulus Cc - cirocumulus, Cs - cirostratus

10. Increasing distance between isobars means that in the given area the air velocity will be:

faster. slower. the distance between isobars tells nothing about the air velocity.

11. The character of precipitation falling out of Cb - cumulonimbus type clouds is:

drizzle. persistent rainfall. strong showers.

12. Cooling speed of rising air saturated with water vapor is less than of unsaturated air because:

water vapor is not cooled as fast as dry air. condensation releases heat. water vapor absorbs heat radiated by air.

13. At the passing active II. kind cold front we encounter typical dangerous phenomena:

strong turbulence, severe icing, active thunderstorm activity, heavy showers, strong winds. icing, persistent rainfall, impaired visibility. low clouds, thick stratiform clouds and strong persistent rainfall.

14. The 10 m/s wind speed is:

33,3 km/h. 30 km/h. 36 km/h.

15. Among high level clouds are:

St – stratus, Sc – stratocumulus Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus Cc – cirrocumulus, Cs – cirrostratus

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

17. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind.

18. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse.

19. Spiral is performed by:

pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

20. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake.

22. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

Paris. Moscow. London.

23. The prime meridian is:

a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England.

24. Geographical North and South:

do not change location. change location depending on annual periods. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism.

25. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. the compass needle free of any interferences. measurements on a map.

26. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

alitude. negative hight, so called dephtines. declination.

27. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. time zone position. certain place name.

28. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. using the reserve parachute.

29. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers.

30. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

31. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide.

32. After a tall tree landing:

you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK. you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed. you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.)

33. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. a lonely tree. dense forest.

34. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

1,5 km 5 km 8 km

35. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight. The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety.

36. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

150 m 300 m 150 m except for ridge soaring.

37. If two aircrafts are flying on lines facing each other or approximately such, each of them should give way by changing its course to the:

right. left. side which is more suitable for avoiding a crash.

38. A pilot must always have:

a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.

39. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground. to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport.

40. In G class airspace there is:

no request of connection. a request of permanent two way connection. a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass.

42. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

43. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons.

44. If improvised transport of an insured PG pilot is necessary (for example in difficult terrain), as the best means of transport will serve:

into a stretcher tied straight branches. the canopy folded in a suitable rectangular shape. his paragliding harness.

45. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment. convenient position, thermal comfort, calming.

46. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. The priority of an improvised transport is speed. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance.

47. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape. by waving any object of bright color. by standing with arms up in Y shape.

48. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. by the lower end of chest bone. in the middle of chest bone.

49. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil.

50. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. always as a priority on any wound or fracture.