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Test - PL A

1. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the weight and lift ratio. the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed. the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider.

2. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change. changes because effective bearing area is the same. does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change.

3. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the speed and drag ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio.

4. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

5. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease.

6. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag. parasitic drag and supportive drag.

7. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same. is changing when flying in wind. is changing with weight changes.

8. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

total weight. the velocity of flow. the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients).

9. Among free-convective low-level clouds is:

As - altostratus St - stratus Cu - cumulus

10. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of strong turbulence?

Cirrocumulus Altocumulus lenticularis Nimbostratus

11. The correct ICAO abbreviation of northwest wind is:

SE NW SW

12. The basic cause of cloud formation in the atmosphere is:

decrease of air temperature with height. achieving a state of saturation. achieving a state of saturation followed by water vapor condensation.

13. What prevents the air flow from areas of high pressure directly into the area of low air pressure?

Friction on the earth's surface. The force caused by the pressure gradient. The Coriolis force.

14. What will be the surface wind characteristics in the area where on the surface meteorological map there are isobars close together?

Strong wind blowing perpedicularly to the isobars. Weak wind blowing along the isobars. Strong wind blowing approximately along the isobars.

15. Which of clouds forming on the forehead of cold front is the most dangerous for air traffic?

Cb – cumulonimbus Ns – nimbostratus As – altostratus

16. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments.

17. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Seven. Five. Three.

18. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

19. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

20. Spiral is performed by:

weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

21. What does the term „spin” mean?

A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall.

22. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

200 km 50 km 20 km

23. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot.

24. Course is measured in degrees from north:

counterclockwise. clockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west.

25. The horizontal velocity is given:

in feet. in knots. in km/h, MPH or knots (kts).

26. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the geological poles. the magnetic poles. the marine poles.

27. Geographical North and South:

do not change location. change location depending on annual periods. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism.

28. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to turn the glider against the wind.

29. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

water surface. electric wires. a parking.

30. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the A risers or lines. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. wait until the glider stops itself.

31. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift.

32. For emergency landing You would prefer:

water. buildings. trees.

33. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

34. The aircraft, that is obliged by the rules to give way to another aircraft, must:

avoided so that the maintained vertical distance between aircrafts was 150 m. avoid by flying above or under or cross the other aircraft flight line at a sufficient distance. avoided so that the maintained horizontal distance between aircrafts was 300 m.

35. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map). in 1500 m AMSL. in FL 125.

36. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

60 degrees. 80 degrees. 70 degrees.

37. Restricted air space (LK R):

must not be passed through. must be passed through. can be passed through under specified conditions.

38. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. a specified altitude. the upper limit of the G class air space.

39. The definition of visibility is:

the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight. the ability to see and recognize outstanding unlighted objects by day and lights at night determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance. the ability to see forward from the cockpit of the aircraft in flight determined by meteorological conditions and expressed in units of distance.

40. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

300 m 150 m 150 m except for ridge soaring.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection.

44. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage. lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle. fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage.

45. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body. the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly.

46. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body.

47. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always as a priority on any wound or fracture.

48. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

49. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs.

50. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

lay the afflicted in the stabilized position. free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid.