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Test - PL A

1. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

2. The centre of gravity of an aircraft:

is a point where the force of gravity acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts. is a point where the resultant aerodynamic force and force of gravity acts.

3. The lift on the aerofoil:

is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing. is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil.

4. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground. it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it will fly 1 km in 10 s.

5. The lift acts:

always perpendicularly to the chord. always perpendicularly to the direction of flow attacking the aerofoil. always upwards from the aerofoil.

6. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the wing arrow and air foil thickness. the air foil thickness and special aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape.

7. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

negative pressure. overpressure. no pressure.

8. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is changing due to a change of trailing edge position. is changing because the wing banks in the same moment. is not changing.

9. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of strong turbulence?

Altocumulus lenticularis Nimbostratus Cirrocumulus

10. What are the characteristic signs of the weather on the leeward side of the mountains during Fohn?

Overcast, precipitation, good visibility. Variable cloudiness and occasional rain, moderate or no wind. Few clouds, unusual increase of temperature, low humidity, often strong winds.

11. Which of the following clouds can spread over several levels (according to hight levels of clouds)?

Altocumulus Nimbostratus Cirrus

12. Air density:

decreases with decreasing air temperature. increases with decreasing air temperature. increases with increasing air temperature.

13. What ground level weather is usually associated with a permanent area of high pressure over the mainland in winter?

Thunderstorms. Ns cloudiness with permanent rain. Fog tendency and low St-type cloudiness.

14. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the lowest:

above Equator areas. above poles. in temperate zones.

15. A prerequisite for the condensation of the saturated water vapor in the troposphere is the presence of condensation nuclei which are:

solid and liquid particles. liquid particles. solid particles.

16. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

17. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

18. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers.

19. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

20. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

21. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased.

22. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. time zone position. certain place name.

23. 045 degrees is direction:

north east. north west. south west.

24. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

2 hours. There is no difference. 1 hour.

25. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

true air speed. indicated air speed. ground speed.

26. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

those with precise angles. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale.

27. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Experience of the pilot and his estimation. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground.

28. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

against the wind. with the wind. with the wind from a side.

29. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. using the reserve parachute.

30. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

31. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes.

32. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

33. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

34. Can I meet an airliner in Class E airspace?

Only in clouds. No. Yes.

35. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight according the local atmospheric pressure. the hight above the ground level. the hight above the see level.

36. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

The course must be kept but speed can be changed. These conditions must not be changed. This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision.

37. In G class airspace there is:

no request of connection. a request of permanent two way connection. a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL.

38. Airport operations are:

all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport. all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area.

39. If two aircrafts are flying on lines facing each other or approximately such, each of them should give way by changing its course to the:

side which is more suitable for avoiding a crash. left. right.

40. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 85 (2600 m) FL 95 (2900 m) FL 125 (3800 m)

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back. The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position.

44. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering.

45. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

46. The telephone number of medical emergency service in the Czech Republic is:

158 155 150

47. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side. convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment.

48. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

The tourniquet needs tightening. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up. We need to use another compress bandage.

49. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain.

50. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection. must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.).