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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. How the speed system works?

It increases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. It decreases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. Sometimes it deforms the aerofoil shape. It decreases the angle of attack by releasing the rear risers.

2. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease. the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases.

3. Larger part of lift is generated:

above 2/3 of the aerofoil, around 55%. above the aerofoil, around 2/3. below the aerofoil, around 2/3.

4. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing when flying in wind. is changing with weight changes. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same.

5. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back. The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord.

6. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio. the speed and drag ratio.

7. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest. the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall.

8. The lift on the aerofoil:

is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing. is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil.

9. Coriolis force acting on the wind is:

the friction force. inertia force causing bodies movement deflection, thus also the air flow. the centrifugal force.

10. A passing cold front with active storm manifestations is reflected by:

no change in temperature, slight pressure decrease and slight wind speed decrease without gusts. temperature decrease, strong athmopheric pressure decrease followed by its increase, strong wind speed increase with gusts. a temperature decrease later followed by its increase, no change in athmospheric pressure, wind fading.

11. The part of cyclone between the warm and cold fronts is called:

the ridge of higher pressure. the front line. the warm sector.

12. In what part of a day is the highest probability of mass storm occurrence in Middle Europe?

Noon, afternoon. Late morning. Around midnight.

13. An aircraft is flying at a very warm day across the Alps. The weather is good and there is an anticyclone in the area. The aircraft is flying by a mountain at the hight of its summit. What value is the altimeter showing compared to the summit altitude?

A lower height than the summit altitude. A higher height than the summit altitude. The same height as the summit altitude.

14. The beginning of thunder storm is characterized by:

rain on the earth's surface. frequent lightning. persistent ascending currents.

15. Unsaturated adiabatic curve is showing the change in temperature with height of value:

1,00 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,60 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,65 °C / 100 m of hight.

16. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased.

17. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

18. Spiral is performed by:

weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

19. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind.

20. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

21. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

22. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. time zone position. certain place name.

23. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. clockwise. counterclockwise.

24. Geographical meridian is:

a circle around the globe. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a half of meridian circle.

25. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

declination. alitude. negative hight, so called dephtines.

26. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. those with precise angles. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles.

27. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic situation. topographic area. map projections.

28. For emergency landing You would prefer:

trees. water. buildings.

29. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground.

30. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

31. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a lonely tree. a forest road. dense forest.

32. After a tall tree landing:

you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.) you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed. you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK.

33. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow.

34. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 85 (2600 m) FL 95 (2900 m) FL 125 (3800 m)

35. Flying above a gathering of people at such a height that would not allow a safe landing in case of danger without endangering pilots or people on the ground is:

allowed. possible only at an air show with a valid authorization issued. forbidden.

36. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations.

37. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground.

38. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a sport pilot and a PG instructor.

39. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

40. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

Not during an airport flight. Yes. No.

41. Initial examination includes:

fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

43. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment. thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side.

44. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move. we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery. we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest.

45. During an improvised transport of an afflicted:

the head should be placed so that it could move in response to terrain unevenness. the specific position is not a question but the fact that the afflicted is fixed and the position does not change suddenly. the limbs should be stretched along the long axis of body.

46. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. always as a priority on any wound or fracture. only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger.

47. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil.

48. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger. If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider.

49. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important).

50. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs.