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Test - PL A

1. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

2. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km. its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km.

3. The chord is:

the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts. the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil.

4. The resultant aerodynamic force consists of:

lift and drag. lift coefficient and weight. lift and weight.

5. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag.

6. What kind of change of flow speed and static pressure causes the widening of streamlines in a specified place?

The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase.

7. The glide ratio relative to ground:

is changing when flying in wind. is not changing when flying in wind because the bearing area is still the same. is changing with weight changes.

8. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

changes because effective bearing area is the same. changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change. does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change.

9. Which of the following types of cloud is considered low level cloud?

As St Ns

10. In meteorology, storm is:

a natural phenomenon accompanied by intensive rainfall and electrical discharges. the most significant manifestation of convection in the free atmosphere. a phenomenon identical with the term "cold front”.

11. Which of the following cloud types are a sign of unstable air mass?

Sc, Ns Cu, Cb St, Cs

12. What type of precipitation can be expected on an active cold front?

Light persistent rain. Showers and thunderstorms. Drizzle.

13. What vertical temperature stratification is typical for advection fog?

Isothermy. Drop of temperature with altitude. Inversion.

14. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

in winter at midday. in summer at midday. at noon.

15. With increasing height, atmospheric pressure:

increases and in the hight of 5.5 km is double of its value at the see level. does not change. decreases and in the hight of 5.5 km is a half of its value at the see level.

16. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

17. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

18. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

19. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system.

20. B-stall is performed by:

by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn.

22. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

against the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left. with the wind.

23. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the compass needle free of any interferences. the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. measurements on a map.

24. The globe is:

a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. a net of coordinate lines. ideal sphere.

25. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground. A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation.

26. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

ground speed. true air speed. indicated air speed.

27. 10 cm in map with 1 : 200 000 scale refers of real distance:

50 km 200 km 20 km

28. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind. against the wind. with the wind from a side.

29. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the A risers or lines. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. wait until the glider stops itself.

30. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK.

31. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy. no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself.

32. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. to execute a descending maneuvre.

33. The reserve parachute is used so that:

By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated.

34. When two light aircrafts are flying on intersecting tracks in free space, the right of way is of the light aircraft flying:

against the sun. from the right. from the left.

35. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at every flight. with them at flights outside the airport. with them at cross country flights.

36. Airport operations are:

all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area. all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport.

37. In G class airspace there is:

a request of permanent two way connection. no request of connection. a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL.

38. If two aircrafts are flying on lines facing each other or approximately such, each of them should give way by changing its course to the:

left. right. side which is more suitable for avoiding a crash.

39. An aircraft in flight or moving on the ground must give way to the aircraft:

which received permission for landing approach. which has no connection with the air traffic control cervices. which is landing or in the final approach to the landing.

40. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

5 km 8 km 1,5 km

41. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early.

42. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.

44. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority.

45. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection.

46. When stopping bleeding by tourniquet, the principle is:

„The tourniquet must hurt.“ „If using tourniquet, then properly.“ „The tourniquet must not hurt.“

47. The signal to the rescue helicopter from persons on the ground is done:

by standing with arms up in Y shape. by standing with arms stretched sideways in A shape. by waving any object of bright color.

48. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

by the lower end of chest bone. next to left nipple. in the middle of chest bone.

49. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil.

50. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. anywhere between the wound and heart.