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Test - PL A

1. At the critical angle of attack:

the lift coefficient reaches its maximum values, over further increasing of the angle of attack the lift coefficient decreases abruptly. the lift coefficient sharply increases. the drag coefficient drops abruptly.

2. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force.

3. In a normal steady flight:

there is overpressure on the upper surface and negative pressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is negative pressure on the upper surface and overpressure on the lower surface of the wing. there is overpressure on the upper and lower surface of the wing.

4. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

increases. decreases. stays the same.

5. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km.

6. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease. the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases.

7. A paraglider stall occures when:

the pilot breaks too much. the glider overcomes the pilot when taking off. the speed system is pushed too fast.

8. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

decreases. does not change. increases.

9. Frontal fog forms usually on:

worm fronts. II. type cold fronts. stationary fronts.

10. What vertical temperature stratification is typical for advection fog?

Inversion. Isothermy. Drop of temperature with altitude.

11. The high pressure - anticyclone - is the area of:

high atmospheric pressure with the highest value on its border. high atmospheric pressure with the highest value in its middle. high atmospheric pressure rising in particular direction.

12. Lentil shaped elongated clouds:

occur mainly in the tropics; in our latitudes they appear rarely in the spring at the sudden change in temperature. especially in summer indicate coming of a dangerous occluded front. indicate strong wind at hight and wind gusts danger.

13. Which of the following cloud types may reach up into the stratosphere?

Cirrostratus Cumulus Cumulonimbus

14. During summer in Central Europe, in the central part of a significant anticyclone we expect:

clear skies, strong winds, cold at night, warm at daytime and strong thermics. mostly sunny, light wind, high temperatures duding a day, weakening thermics. inversion fog, variable wind, night thunderstorms and strong thermics during a day.

15. Among high level clouds are:

Cc – cirrocumulus, Cs – cirrostratus St – stratus, Sc – stratocumulus Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse.

17. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

18. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering.

19. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

20. When entering a thermal current:

the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

21. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

22. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

map projections. topographic area. topographic situation.

23. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. those with precise angles.

24. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

25. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to focus on one landmark. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to locate and identify several landmarks.

26. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

There is no difference. 2 hours. 1 hour.

27. The globe is:

a net of coordinate lines. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. ideal sphere.

28. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too.

29. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. pull the second steering fully and then release both. release the steering continuously.

30. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind from a side. with the wind. against the wind.

31. For emergency landing You would prefer:

water. trees. buildings.

32. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

33. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow. The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses.

34. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age.

35. An overtaking plane is that which approaches the overtaken aircraft from behind on a line forming with a plane of symmetry of the overtaken aircraft angle of less than:

80 degrees. 70 degrees. 60 degrees.

36. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services. The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety. The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight.

37. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at flights outside the airport. with them at every flight. with them at cross country flights.

38. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

39. Verifying whether a paraglider technical certificate is valid is a duty of:

the aircraft commander (pilot). the head of air traffic. the operator.

40. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

43. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss. gentle transportation to the place of professional help. fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions.

44. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight.

45. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport. Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The priority of an improvised transport is speed.

46. The best way of use of the „anti-shock” foil (thermal blanket) is:

It is laid under the afflicted. The afflicted is carefully covered with it. The afflicted is tightly wraped into it including head, only face is uncovered.

47. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

a priority first aid objective. necessary in case of open fracture. needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary.

48. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position. The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back.

49. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery. we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest. the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move.

50. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.