PLA test

1. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the speed and drag ratio. the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio.

2. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the wing arrow and air foil thickness. the air foil thickness and special aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape.

3. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag. the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag.

4. Select the correct statement regarding the position of the unconscious affected with a severe trauma:

If the affected is in the current position reliably breathing, I leave him in this position. The basic rule is not to move the unconscious affected to eliminate the risk of further damage to the spine and spinal cord. An insured unconscious affected person should always be placed in position on her back with her head tilted back.

5. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span squared and wing surface. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span and air foil thickness.

6. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

At the side parts of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed. In the middle of the glider.

7. Surface load:

indicates the number of m2 of bearing area per one kilogram of the total weight. indicates the number of kilograms of the pilot weight per m2 of bearing area. indicates the number of kilograms of the total weight per m2 of bearing area.

8. When air flow is laminar:

there is a relative mix of streamlines. there is no relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow.

9. The change of physical state ice - water vapor is called:

evaporation condensation sublimation

10. Which types of clouds are typical for a warm front cloud system:

Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cb – cumulonimbus Sc – stratocumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cc – cirocumulus Ns – nimbostratus, As – altostratus, Cs – cirostratus

11. Turbulence is defined as:

forces acting on the aircraft in different directions and giving this aircraft various supplementary accelerations. forces acting on the aircraft in vertical directions. forces increasing the aircraft’s velocity.

12. In the area of high pressure in the northern hemisphere the wind close to the ground is blowing:

strait out from the middle of high pressure in the whole area. counter clockwise. clockwise.

13. At the passing active II. kind cold front we encounter typical dangerous phenomena:

strong turbulence, severe icing, active thunderstorm activity, heavy showers, strong winds. low clouds, thick stratiform clouds and strong persistent rainfall. icing, persistent rainfall, impaired visibility.

14. Which basic parameters and phenomena determine the weather inside air masses?

Temperature, humidity, vertical temperature gradient. Pressure, clouds and air density. Precipitations and visibility.

15. In what part of a day is the highest probability of mass storm occurrence in Middle Europe?

Around midnight. Late morning. Noon, afternoon.

16. What does the term „spin” mean?

Symmetric paragider stall. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. A spiral.

17. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side.

18. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Seven. Three.

20. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

21. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy shoots forward and can collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

22. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. those with precise angles. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles.

23. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. 2 hours. There is no difference.

24. Geographic coordinates indicate:

time zone position. certain geographical location. certain place name.

25. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

with annual periods. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. depending on the intensity of sunlight.

26. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

27. The prime meridian is:

the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England.

28. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines.

29. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy. weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself.

30. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. using the reserve parachute. to execute a descending maneuvre.

31. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly.

32. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers.

33. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. pull the A risers or lines. wait until the glider stops itself.

34. In G class airspace there is:

a request of permanent two way connection. a request of connection for flights above 150 m AGL. no request of connection.

35. If two or more aircrafts heavier then air are approaching one airport with the intention to land and the avoidance rules do not apply, the priority of landing is as follows:

the aircraft flying higher gives way to the lower flying aircraft. the aircraft flying on left gives way to the aircraft flying from right. the slower aircraft gives way to the faster aircraft.

36. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN.

37. A pilot must always have:

a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation.

38. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

No. Not during an airport flight. Yes.

39. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

from sunset to sunrise. in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset. only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority.

40. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery. we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest. the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move.

44. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it.

45. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

the highest possible frequency of compressions. the deepest compressions. timely starting and continuity of compressions.

46. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too).

47. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.

48. In improvised conditions fracture fixing is:

needed in exceptional cases if manipulation with the patient before professional medical services arrival is necessary. necessary in case of open fracture. a priority first aid objective.

49. The best way of use of the „anti-shock” foil (thermal blanket) is:

It is laid under the afflicted. The afflicted is tightly wraped into it including head, only face is uncovered. The afflicted is carefully covered with it.

50. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond. if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect.