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Test - PL A

1. When increasing the angle of attack:

the lift coefficient and drag coefficient decrease. the lift coefficient and drag coefficient increase. the lift coefficient increases and drag coefficient decreases.

2. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

the lift of the paraglider is 6 times less then its drag. the lift is 6 times greater then the drag. it is flying at the speed of 6 m/s and the lift of the paraglider is 6 times greater then its drag.

3. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy. changes of the size of projected area of the canopy.

4. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the weight of the aircraft and lift. the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force. the drag and the gravity force.

5. The aircraft falls when:

it gets over the critical angle of attack. the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed. the pilot makes too sharp turn.

6. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

lift, mass and drag. the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag. lift and overpressure.

7. How the speed system works?

It increases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. It decreases the angle of attack by releasing the rear risers. It decreases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. Sometimes it deforms the aerofoil shape.

8. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

9. At a stable temperature stratification and strong wind which increases with height, behind a terrain obstacle occures a flow fenomenon called:

Wave. Turbulence. Vortex.

10. Dew point is:

a place over which a cloud will form. the temperature to which air must be cooled to induce condensation. the height of the zero isotherm.

11. Wind significantly affects air traffic:

only in flight at flight level. in all its stages. during landing and takeoff, but not in flight at flight level.

12. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is called:

mesosphere. stratosphere. troposphere.

13. In practice we converse wind speed in m/s into kt by formula:

1 m/s ~ 2 kt 1 m/s ~ 3 kt 1 m/s ~ 1 kt

14. Low level cloud can be:

St – stratus Ac – altocumulus Ci – cirrus

15. Which of the following clouds can spread over several levels (according to hight levels of clouds)?

Cirrus Altocumulus Nimbostratus

16. What does the term „spin” mean?

Symmetric paragider stall. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. A spiral.

17. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased.

18. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

19. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall.

20. I increase the flight speed by:

pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering. depressing the speed system.

21. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

always the same. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

22. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

perpendicularly to the wind from left. against the wind. with the wind.

23. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

depending on the intensity of sunlight. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth. with annual periods.

24. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. those with precise angles.

25. The horizontal velocity is given:

in km/h, MPH or knots (kts). in feet. in knots.

26. Comparative navigation involves:

comparing terrain with a map and vice versa. comparing the calculated times with the reality. comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map.

27. Magnetic course is measured:

from geographical north of local meridian. from bearing indicator. from prime meridian.

28. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

pull the second steering fully and then release both. release the steering continuously. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift.

29. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

30. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. dense forest. a lonely tree.

31. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly.

32. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft. using the reserve parachute.

33. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

34. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner.

35. A light aircraft can be steered by:

a pilot who holds a valid assessment on medical fitness or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum. a pilot who holds a valid pilot license with the appropriate qualifications or a person authorized by the light aircraft operator in the presence of the pilot, or a student pilot under the conditions laid down in the training curriculum.

36. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport.

37. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service.

38. The pilot (aircraft commander) is in competence to:

to obey an operator's decision on the execution of a flight. The pilot has no right to decide on the execution of a flight. to decide definitively on the execution of a flight.

39. The minimum age of student for beginning of theoretical and practical paragliding training in the Czech Republic is:

14 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 16 years with the consent of his legal guardians. 15 years with the consent of his legal guardians.

40. The aircraft, that is obliged by the rules to give way to another aircraft, must:

avoided so that the maintained horizontal distance between aircrafts was 300 m. avoid by flying above or under or cross the other aircraft flight line at a sufficient distance. avoided so that the maintained vertical distance between aircrafts was 150 m.

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing.

43. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs.

44. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the body in extended position. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage.

45. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services. We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance.

46. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil.

47. Choose the true statement about a position of an unconscious afflicted:

The unconscious afflicted must not be moved to eliminate the risk of further spine and spinal cord damage. If the afflicted is reliably breathing in the current position, we leave him in this position. The unconscious injury afflicted should always be placed on his back with his head tilted back.

48. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

lay the afflicted in the stabilized position. free the airway by backward head tilt. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid.

49. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body.

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute.