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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The main cause of the stall is always:

decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider. exceeding the critical angle of attack.

2. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

does not change. decreases. increases.

3. The optimal gliding ratio can be flown:

with two different angles of attack. with just one angle of attack. with critical angle of attack.

4. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

thrust and weight, drag and lift. lift and drag. gravity force and lift plus drag.

5. When air flow is laminar:

there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow. there is a relative mix of streamlines. there is no relative mix of streamlines.

6. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

Yes. No. Only for tail wind.

7. The aircraft falls when:

the pilot makes too sharp turn. it gets over the critical angle of attack. the aircraft take off weight is higher then maximum allowed.

8. How the speed system works?

It increases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. It decreases the angle of attack by releasing the rear risers. It decreases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. Sometimes it deforms the aerofoil shape.

9. What vertical temperature stratification is typical for advection fog?

Inversion. Isothermy. Drop of temperature with altitude.

10. The change of physical state ice - water vapor is called:

condensation evaporation sublimation

11. Which types of clouds are typical for a warm front cloud system:

Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cb – cumulonimbus Ns – nimbostratus, As – altostratus, Cs – cirostratus Sc – stratocumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cc – cirocumulus

12. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the lowest:

above poles. in temperate zones. above Equator areas.

13. Half of the weight of the earth's atmosphere is located in the bottom:

5 km 3 km 8 km

14. Which of these cloud species belong among clouds of crystal composition?

Ns - nimbostratus, As - altostratus Cc - cirocumulus, Cs - cirostratus Cb - cumulonimbus, Ac - altocumulus

15. A certain volume of moist but unsaturated air rises. Which of the following changes?

Relative humidity. Mixing ratio. Absolute humidity.

16. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower.

17. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy lilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and can collapse.

18. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. increased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.

19. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind in the valley by the landing zone.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

21. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate. weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight.

22. Geographical North and South:

do not change location. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism. change location depending on annual periods.

23. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

Paris. Moscow. London.

24. Geographic coordinates indicate:

time zone position. certain geographical location. certain place name.

25. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to focus on one landmark. to locate and identify several landmarks. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft.

26. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

map projections. topographic situation. topographic area.

27. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

not identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. identical.

28. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

29. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost.

30. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

water surface. electric wires. a parking.

31. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

dense forest. a lonely tree. a forest road.

32. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident.

33. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

34. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered but cannot be left. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority.

35. The paraglider canopy is damaged mostly by:

storage in dark and dry rooms. mice and other wild rodents. UV rays, mechanical abrasion and humidity.

36. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at cross country flights. with them at flights outside the airport. with them at every flight.

37. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age.

38. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

from sunset to sunrise. in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset. only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority.

39. If two or more aircrafts heavier then air are approaching one airport with the intention to land and the avoidance rules do not apply, the priority of landing is as follows:

the aircraft flying higher gives way to the lower flying aircraft. the aircraft flying on left gives way to the aircraft flying from right. the slower aircraft gives way to the faster aircraft.

40. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

sun and wrong packing. winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

43. The A-B-C protocol in initial examination stands for:

Anamnesis, Breathing,Chest injury check. 1. open the Airway with a head tilt, 2. start the artificial respiration = Breathing, 3. start the chest Compressions. 1. check the Airway, 2. check the Breathing and 3. restore the Circulation (using Compressions).

44. After applying tourniquet the wound is still bleeding:

We need to use another compress bandage. The tourniquet needs tightening. Loosen the tourniquet and lift the afflicted limb up.

45. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil.

46. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

112 1210 155

47. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We start the resuscitation immediately. First we try to free the airway. We promptly transport him to the professional medical service.

48. The best way of use of the „anti-shock” foil (thermal blanket) is:

It is laid under the afflicted. The afflicted is carefully covered with it. The afflicted is tightly wraped into it including head, only face is uncovered.

49. A paraglider in a spin fell nearby. On our approach he lies on his back, unconscious, not breathing, bluish. No clearly visible injury is obvious. We'll call an ambulance and firstly:

lay the afflicted in the stabilized position. lay the afflicted in the anti-shock position with head underlaid. free the airway by backward head tilt.

50. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions. the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status.