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Test - PL A

1. Lift is:

a force generated by flow around a profile perpendicular to the drag force. an area resistance given by the angle of attack. the resultant aerodynamic force generated by flow around a profile.

2. The main cause of the stall is always:

exceeding the critical angle of attack. the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider. decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight.

3. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

4. A paraglider stall occures when:

the pilot breaks too much. the glider overcomes the pilot when taking off. the speed system is pushed too fast.

5. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider. the weight and lift ratio. the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed.

6. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force. the drag and the gravity force. the weight of the aircraft and lift.

7. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the air foil thickness and special aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the wing arrow and air foil thickness.

8. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

lift and drag. gravity force and lift plus drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift.

9. The stratification of air in an inversion layer is:

unstable. stable. indifferent.

10. What vertical temperature stratification is typical for advection fog?

Inversion. Drop of temperature with altitude. Isothermy.

11. In practice we converse wind speed in m/s into kt by formula:

1 m/s ~ 2 kt 1 m/s ~ 3 kt 1 m/s ~ 1 kt

12. What type of precipitation can be expected on an active cold front?

Drizzle. Showers and thunderstorms. Light persistent rain.

13. The land breeze:

blows during a day and is weaker than the see breeze. blows at night and is weaker than the see breeze. blows during a day and is stronger than the see breeze.

14. Dew point temperature is:

the air temperature in given altitude. the air temperature at the saturation status moment. is the air temperature with determined relative humidity.

15. Precipitation zone of a warm front is:

before the front line and it is persistent rainfall. at the front line and it is short rainfall. mostly right after the front line and it is showers.

16. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. decreased.

17. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

18. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

19. What does the term „spin” mean?

Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral. Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall.

20. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain.

21. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

22. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain. accurate compass. accurate watch.

23. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

London. Paris. Moscow.

24. Geographic coordinates indicate:

certain geographical location. time zone position. certain place name.

25. The globe is:

a net of coordinate lines. a rotating ellipsoid flattened at the poles. ideal sphere.

26. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

indicated air speed. true air speed. ground speed.

27. Magnetic course is measured:

from bearing indicator. from prime meridian. from geographical north of local meridian.

28. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

release the steering continuously. hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. pull the second steering fully and then release both.

29. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences. to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing.

30. In strong wind a pilot flew in a place where his ground speed against the wind is zero:

He should keep flying against the wind and emergency-land in the terrain below him. He should step in the speed bar and make big ears. He should fly with sidewind or windwards as the terrain allows as far as possible to an alternative landing field.

31. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

using the reserve parachute. to execute a descending maneuvre. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

32. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud.

33. If I stall the glider:

I release the steering continuously. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly.

34. The paraglider canopy is damaged mostly by:

storage in dark and dry rooms. mice and other wild rodents. UV rays, mechanical abrasion and humidity.

35. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

The course must be kept but speed can be changed. This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision. These conditions must not be changed.

36. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 85 (2600 m) FL 95 (2900 m) FL 125 (3800 m)

37. What is it CTR?

Control zone of an airport. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden. Terminal controlled area.

38. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left.

39. Except for takeoff or landing, or except by permit issued by the Aviation Authority, a VFR flight must be conducted over the congested areas or gathering of people in the open air at a height that may not be less than:

300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft.

40. The upper limit of LKP airspace is:

in FL 125. in various altitudes (see AIP or valid ICAO map). in 1500 m AMSL.

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

43. Clearing the airway of unconscious patient is done primarily using:

backward head tilt. forward head tilt. stabilised position.

44. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the body in extended position. hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

45. The most essential first aid actions that can be performed in the event of serious accident are:

gentle transportation to the place of professional help. to stop heavy bleeding, clearing the airway and fight against heat loss. fixing the bone fractures, treatment of wounds and abrasions.

46. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage.

47. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage.

48. Chest compression during resuscitation is performed:

next to left nipple. in the middle of chest bone. by the lower end of chest bone.

49. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side. convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment.

50. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond.