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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in the same direction. when the air particles are not moving. the flow of air particles in different directions.

2. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

In the middle of the glider. The lift is evenly distributed. At the side parts of the glider.

3. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface.

4. Glide ratio is influenced only by:

the angle of attack (i.e. lift and drag coefficients). total weight. the velocity of flow.

5. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

increases. decreases. stays the same.

6. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest. the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest.

7. If the pilot weight increases the paraglider or powered paraglider speed:

decreases. does not change. increases.

8. Lift arises when an aerofoil is in flow due to the creation of a pressure differential above and below the aerofoil. What is the pressure below and above the aerofoil and what is the ratio of their sizes at normal angles of attack?

There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure. There is overpressure below the aerofoil and negative pressure above the aerofoil in the ratio of 1/3 of overpressure and 2/3 of negative pressure.

9. An aircraft is flying at a very warm day across the Alps. The weather is good and there is an anticyclone in the area. The aircraft is flying by a mountain at the hight of its summit. What value is the altimeter showing compared to the summit altitude?

A higher height than the summit altitude. The same height as the summit altitude. A lower height than the summit altitude.

10. With increasing altitude the wind speed usually:

decreases. increases in the summer and decreases in the winter. increases.

11. Near ground storm demonstrations which are dangerous for air traffic are:

Microbursts before the head of the storm, strong updraft currents in front of the microburst, strong downdraft currents after the microburst in the precipitation area and wind gusts. Persistent rainfall. Drop of cloud base, visibility reducing.

12. There are massive and pronounced Cb - cumulonimbus clouds forming in the area of a athmospheric front. It is a typical manifestation of:

II. type cold front. warm ocluded front. warm front.

13. In what part of a day is the highest probability of mass storm occurrence in Middle Europe?

Late morning. Around midnight. Noon, afternoon.

14. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Frontal fog. Advection fog. Radiation fog.

15. The valley wind is blowing:

across the valley due to winds aloft. across the valley up the mountain slopes. along the mountain valley axis at daytime up to the mountains (against the river stream).

16. What does the term „spin” mean?

Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral.

17. Spiral is performed by:

weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation. a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning.

18. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers. by gradual pulling the first row risers.

19. The take off control includes:

the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

20. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

at the top of the mountain. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

21. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air.

22. The prime meridian is:

the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0. meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle.

23. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to focus on one landmark. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to locate and identify several landmarks.

24. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

1 hour. 2 hours. There is no difference.

25. The difference between UTC and Central European (CET) time is:

2 hours. There is no difference. 1 hour.

26. Time of sunrise and sunset varies:

with annual periods. depending on the intensity of sunlight. influenced by the magnetic field of the Earth.

27. Magnetic course is measured:

from bearing indicator. from geographical north of local meridian. from prime meridian.

28. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost. turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight.

29. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

electric wires. water surface. a parking.

30. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

31. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident.

32. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself. weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy.

33. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

wait until the glider stops itself. pull the A risers or lines. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers.

34. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

outside the clouds and in visibility of ground. at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud.

35. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. a specified altitude. the upper limit of the G class air space.

36. The upper limit of class E airspace is:

FL 125 (3800 m) FL 85 (2600 m) FL 95 (2900 m)

37. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

38. An aircraft having priority must maintain its course and speed:

The course must be kept but speed can be changed. This rule does not relieve the aircraft commander of responsibility to carry out such measures that will the best prevent a collision. These conditions must not be changed.

39. Airdrome traffic zone - ATZ is:

a segregated airspace, which serves to protect airport operations. a segregated airspace with air traffic control service. a segregated airspace with a permanent information service.

40. Airport operations are:

all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area. all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport.

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

43. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the body in extended position. hanging in a triangular bandage.

44. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important).

45. "Secondary examination" of an injury afflicted means:

the second (and next) control examination to determine if there is a deterioration in the status. an inspection of afflicted "head to toe" in order to uncover any injury changes on body. an examination by another independent person to verify the initial conclusions.

46. „Surgical” rubber gloves:

should be used only in treatment of heavy bleeding or dirty wounds. should be used for taking care of any injury. are suitable for treatment of patients suspected of infectious disease.

47. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet.

48. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). hanging in a triangular bandage.

49. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration.

50. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

1210 112 155