Check out how you stand with your knowledge to obtain a paragliding pilot's license.
Unsure or don't know the correct answer? Learn everything you need right in our online classroom.
Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Releasing the steering. Pulling the steering. Pushing the speed system.

2. The polar line is a chart expressing:

the speed and drag ratio. the horizontal speed and angle of attack ratio. the vertical speed and horizontal speed ratio.

3. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

thrust and weight, drag and lift. lift and drag. gravity force and lift plus drag.

4. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in different directions. the flow of air particles in the same direction. when the air particles are not moving.

5. How the speed system works?

It decreases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. Sometimes it deforms the aerofoil shape. It increases the angle of attack by pulling the front risers. It decreases the angle of attack by releasing the rear risers.

6. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

decrease of steering forces. significant rise of forces in steering lines. sudden increase of descent rate.

7. The paraglider glide ratio is defined as:

the ratio between the horizontal and vertical velocity component of the paraglider. the weight and lift ratio. the relation between the glider performance and vertical speed.

8. The induced drag can be reduced by:

the air foil thickness and special aspect ratio and favorable wing tip shape. the wing arrow and air foil thickness.

9. Which of the following processes in the air layer may lead to the formation of cumulus and cumulonimbus cloudiness?

Stable air layers lifting on frontal boundary. Convection. Subsidence.

10. A passing cold front with active storm manifestations is reflected by:

no change in temperature, slight pressure decrease and slight wind speed decrease without gusts. temperature decrease, strong athmopheric pressure decrease followed by its increase, strong wind speed increase with gusts. a temperature decrease later followed by its increase, no change in athmospheric pressure, wind fading.

11. Clouds classified as high level clouds constitute of:

ice crystals. supercooled water droplets. hail.

12. Local isolated thunderstorms are mostly:

mass storms. frontal air lift (warm front). frontal air lift (cold front).

13. What thunder storms move forward the fastest?

Orographic storms. Mass storms. Frontal storms.

14. Precipitation coming off St-stratus layer of cloud is mostly:

violent torrential rain. hail. drizzle.

15. In the area of low pressure in the northern hemisphere the wind close to the ground is blowing:

clockwise. strait into the middle of the low pressure in the whole area. counter clockwise.

16. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing.

17. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain.

18. When entering a thermal current:

the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake.

19. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right.

20. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling a bit of steering. pulling the trimmers.

21. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall.

22. Geographic coordinates indicate:

time zone position. certain geographical location. certain place name.

23. Direction south is reported by:

360° 090° 180°

24. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

Moscow. London. Paris.

25. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise. counterclockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west.

26. The most suitable maps for aeronautical navigation are:

those with precise angles. maps with 1 : 500 000 scale. the maps which truly reflect the topographic situation and angles.

27. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. measurements on a map. the compass needle free of any interferences.

28. For emergency landing You would prefer:

buildings. trees. water.

29. If I stall the glider:

I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I hold the steering down firmly. I use the reserve parachute; if there is not enough hight, I release the steering quickly. I release the steering continuously.

30. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident.

31. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. release the steering continuously. pull the second steering fully and then release both.

32. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy. weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself.

33. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

water surface. electric wires. a parking.

34. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

300 m 150 m except for ridge soaring. 150 m

35. The lower limit of a control zone (CTR) is formed by:

the ground surface. a specified altitude. the upper limit of the G class air space.

36. What is it CTR?

Control zone of an airport. An air space where VFR flights are forbidden. Terminal controlled area.

37. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at a flight outside the airport. at every flight. at every cross country flight.

38. A Czech Pilot license holder can obtain a Sport Pilot license after:

six months. nine months. five months.

39. The AGL abbreviation by a height data in the airspace map means:

the hight above the see level. the hight above the ground level. the hight according the local atmospheric pressure.

40. To recalculate a figure in meters into figure in feet we use the simplified formula:

(m x 3) : 10 (m x 3) + 10% (m : 10) x 3

41. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering.

42. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents.

43. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain.

44. A foreign object (e.g. little stone, sherd or so):

must be removed even if surrounding tissue is damaged and then the wound needs rinsing with disinfection. is to be removed from a wound if it is possible without excessive violence (e.g. rinsing with water, gently pulling etc.). is never to be removed - cover the wound with anything in it and soak the bandage with disinfection.

45. Unless prevented by special circumstances, the best for the accident afflicted is:

a position on the side („stabilized” or „recovery” position). the "Anti-shock" position with legs and arms raised as high as possible„ a position that the afflicted person wants to take.

46. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body.

47. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious. Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are. First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help.

48. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart. anywhere between the wound and heart.

49. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

50. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction.