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Test - PL A

1. Can we read the best glide ratio speed in front wind from the polar line?

Yes. No. Only for tail wind.

2. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the weight of the aircraft and lift. the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force. the drag and the gravity force.

3. The separation of streamlines is when:

the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil. the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape. turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow.

4. Bringing a paraglider close to the critical angle of attack is manifested by:

significant rise of forces in steering lines. decrease of steering forces. sudden increase of descent rate.

5. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Releasing the steering. Pushing the speed system. Pulling the steering.

6. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

lift and drag. gravity force and lift plus drag. thrust and weight, drag and lift.

7. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

8. Turbulent flow is:

the flow of air particles in different directions. the flow of air particles in the same direction. when the air particles are not moving.

9. The basic cause of cloud formation in the atmosphere is:

achieving a state of saturation followed by water vapor condensation. decrease of air temperature with height. achieving a state of saturation.

10. What weather conditions are expected in temperate latitudes over land in summer in the middle of a stationary area of high pressure?

Ns clouds. Thunderstorms, clear air and strong winds. Weak winds, haze.

11. The low pressure system - Cyclone - is the area:

of low atmospheric pressure with the minimum value in its middle. of low atmospheric pressure with the minimum value on its bordes. where the atmospheric pressure is decreasing outwards.

12. Which of the phenomena occurring on the II. kind cold front are particularly dangerous for low-flying aircraft?

High pressure and temperature drop. Drop of cloud base, sometimes even to the ground. Strong turbulence limited to the narrow space of vortex - the microburst, with axis approximately at the base of Cb - cumulonimbus cloud.

13. We talk about stable air mass if following applies:

There is convection forming in the air. There are favorable conditions for ascending currents formation. There are unfavorable conditions for ascending currents formation.

14. Condensed isobars on the synoptic map indicate:

high temperature difference. pressure level of the area. greater pressure difference and therefore stronger wind.

15. Among the clouds with a great vertical development is:

Cb – cumulonimbus Cc – cirocumulus Ac – altocumulus

16. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

increased. decreased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.

17. An asymmetric collapse of about 1/2 of the leading edge should be solved by:

weight shift into the non collapsed side and light break of the same side to keep the glider in straight flight. weight shift into the collapsed side and light break of the non collapsed side to keep the glider in straight flight. no inputs in steering letting the glider reinflate.

18. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

19. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. at the top of the mountain. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top.

20. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Three. Seven.

21. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same.

22. Geographical meridian is:

a half of meridian circle. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a circle around the globe.

23. The flight velocity displayed by GPS is:

indicated air speed. true air speed. ground speed.

24. Magnetic north is a direction given by:

the theoretical line intersecting the earth center and the surface of the earth in points called magnetic north and magnetic south. measurements on a map. the compass needle free of any interferences.

25. 225 degrees is direction:

south east. south west. north west.

26. An aircraft on bearing 265 in a wind 085 is flying:

against the wind. with the wind. perpendicularly to the wind from left.

27. Geographic coordinates indicate:

time zone position. certain place name. certain geographical location.

28. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a lonely tree. a forest road. dense forest.

29. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

30. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

in rapid uncontrolable rotation. after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

31. If during a flight the reserve parachute drops out accidentally and opens:

I prepare for the landing on the rescue, nothing else can be done anyway. I should try to collapse the glider canopy by pulling rear risers or steering to minimise its influence into reserve parachute flight and I should get prepared for landing. I should collapse the rescue parachute by pulling its lines.

32. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

33. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully.

34. The period of validity of the medical certificate on health ability for Czech pilots is:

36 months for persons between 30 and 60 years of age. 24 months for persons between 35 and 60 years of age. 12 months for persons above 60 years of age.

35. A pilot must have a valid pilot's license on him:

at every flight. at a flight outside the airport. at every cross country flight.

36. A pilot must always have:

a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility. a proof of identity, a pilot's license or a student document, the technical certificate of the aircraft, a proof of insurance for damage caused by the aircraft operation. a pilot's license or a student document, the airworthiness certificate, a proof of insurance for damage caused the aircraft operation, medical certificate of flying eligibility.

37. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h. can be entered but cannot be left.

38. The minimum allowed flight visibility in class E airspace is:

1,5 km 8 km 5 km

39. Pilots must have the documents required for flying a light aircraft:

with them at cross country flights. with them at flights outside the airport. with them at every flight.

40. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically.

41. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C.

42. Risers are:

pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents.

43. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help. We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services.

44. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it. Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage.

45. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond.

46. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident. placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight.

47. Choose the true statement about using the thermal („space”) blanket:

This blanket can be also used as a tourniquet or improvised bandage. The side doesn’t matter, the important is to wrap it tightly all around the patient. The foil is a very good thermal isolation but does not protect against moisture - it can leak in strong rain.

48. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest. noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction.

49. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation. caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. the process should be as fast as possible.

50. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment. convenient position, thermal comfort, calming.