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Test - PL A

1. The lift on the aerofoil:

is created due to angle of attack and change of air temperature above and below of the wing. is created due to different speed of flow above nad below the aerofoil. is generated by the Coriolis force and by equalizing pressure above and below the aerofoil.

2. Where on the aerofoil the flow separation starts?

In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the trailing edge end. In the boundary layer at the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end. In the wake on the suction side of the aerofoil from the leading edge end.

3. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

no pressure. overpressure. negative pressure.

4. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

thrust and weight, drag and lift. gravity force and lift plus drag. lift and drag.

5. On which part of the glider canopy is the largest lift, seen from the front?

The lift is evenly distributed. At the side parts of the glider. In the middle of the glider.

6. There are aerodynamic forces generated on a body in flow. They are called:

lift and overpressure. the resultant aerodynamic force which is sum of lift and drag. lift, mass and drag.

7. In the moment of flying in a sinking currant the angle of attack:

decreases. does not change. increases.

8. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

0.25 kg/m3 0.4 kg/m3 4 kg/m3

9. The change of physical state water - water vapor is called:

evaporation condensation sublimation

10. Wind significantly affects air traffic:

during landing and takeoff, but not in flight at flight level. in all its stages. only in flight at flight level.

11. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Frontal fog. Advection fog. Radiation fog.

12. What do we mean by the term "clear thermic"?

An ascending thermal current not topped by a cumulus cloud. Strong gusty wind in a coud free environment. Turbulence associated with a windshear.

13. Coriolis force acting on the wind is:

the centrifugal force. inertia force causing bodies movement deflection, thus also the air flow. the friction force.

14. The change of physical state ice - water vapor is called:

condensation evaporation sublimation

15. What will be the surface wind characteristics in the area where on the surface meteorological map there are isobars close together?

Weak wind blowing along the isobars. Strong wind blowing approximately along the isobars. Strong wind blowing perpedicularly to the isobars.

16. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

17. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. always the same.

18. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Five. Seven. Three.

20. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier. Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces.

21. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased. decreased.

22. Geographical North and South:

do not change location. change location depending on annual periods. are influenced by the Earth’s magnetism.

23. The prime meridian is:

meridian, also called the base meridian, passing through Greenwich Observatory in England. a meridian not passing through observatory in Greenwich, but only a small circle. the meridian, at which the latitude and longitude equal 0.

24. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to locate and identify several landmarks. to focus on one landmark.

25. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic area. topographic situation. map projections.

26. Comparative navigation involves:

comparing terrain with a map and vice versa. comparing the calculated times with the reality. comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map.

27. The horizontal velocity is given:

in feet. in knots. in km/h, MPH or knots (kts).

28. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway.

29. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes.

30. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. wait until the glider stops itself. pull the A risers or lines.

31. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

32. For emergency landing You would prefer:

trees. buildings. water.

33. When flying on speed system:

The paraglider is prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and will be more prone to symmetrical or asymmetrical collapses. The paraglider will increase its speed and it will be more stabile thanks to better flow.

34. The prohibited airspace (LKP):

can be entered but cannot be left. cannot be entered axcept with a special authorization of a competent authority. can be entered only on the G class airspace level and at the indicated air speed lower then 460 km/h.

35. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right.

36. Upper limit of G class airspace is in:

300 m AGL 300 m STD 300 m AMSL

37. The paraglider canopy is damaged mostly by:

storage in dark and dry rooms. mice and other wild rodents. UV rays, mechanical abrasion and humidity.

38. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility.

39. Airdrome traffic zone (ATZ) is of such dimensions:

a circle with a diameter of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a diameter of 5.5 NM (10 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters). a circle with a radius of 3 NM (5.5 km), vertically from the ground to an altitude of 4000 feet (1200 meters).

40. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules.

41. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. the process should be as fast as possible. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation.

44. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the body in extended position. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). hanging in a triangular bandage.

45. The best way of use of the „anti-shock” foil (thermal blanket) is:

The afflicted is carefully covered with it. It is laid under the afflicted. The afflicted is tightly wraped into it including head, only face is uncovered.

46. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better.

47. Choose the true statement about tactics when you are a witness of a severe injury:

First, you need to restore vital functions as quickly as possible, and only then deal with calling for help. Before calling an emergency service it is appropriate to make at least indicative examination where the accident happened, what happened and how many affected there are. If we witness an accident, we call emergency service after a thorough examination, to make sure that the situation is really serious.

48. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions only. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2.

49. Fractures of lower limbs are preferably fixed by:

tightening to the other limb (only if that is not broken too). hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.).

50. Resuscitation can be (among others) terminated:

if it has reliably been found that the afflicted is older than 70 years. after 20 min of performing it without any obvious effect. when consciousness is restored - the patient begins to respond.