Check out how you stand with your knowledge to obtain a paragliding pilot's license.
Unsure or don't know the correct answer? Learn everything you need right in our online classroom.
Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pushing the speed system. Pulling the steering. Releasing the steering.

2. When air flow is laminar:

there is a relative mix of streamlines. there is no relative mix of streamlines. there is a relative mix of streamlines but at the end of given aerofoil there are no significant eddies in the flow.

3. When an aircraft is flying with such an angle of attack that its gliding ratio is ', it means that:

it is flying under an angle 10° towards the ground. it will fly 10 km far from altitude 1 km in no wind. it will fly 1 km in 10 s.

4. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force. the weight of the aircraft and lift. the drag and the gravity force.

5. The main cause of the stall is always:

the start of transition of laminar flow into turbulent flow on the surface of the glider. decreasing the flight speed under the minimum forward ground speed in a steady flight. exceeding the critical angle of attack.

6. On the bottom side of the wing in flight there is:

negative pressure. no pressure. overpressure.

7. Induced drag:

arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference. arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft. arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft.

8. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

9. The speed of a thermal current depends on:

time of day and season. uneven heating of cyclonic thermal convective clouds. instability rate and air warming from the ground surface.

10. Unsaturated adiabatic curve is showing the change in temperature with height of value:

1,00 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,65 °C / 100 m of hight. 0,60 °C / 100 m of hight.

11. Condensed isobars on the synoptic map indicate:

pressure level of the area. high temperature difference. greater pressure difference and therefore stronger wind.

12. Convective activity in the mid-latitudes is the greatest:

at noon. in winter at midday. in summer at midday.

13. The decrease of temperature with altitude in a standard atmosphere definition - vertical temperature gradient - has a value of:

0,65° C / 100 m. 1,0° C / 100 m. 0,6° C / 100 m.

14. Hazardous phenomena associated with a I. kind cold front are usually:

Only low level clouds of stratiform types. Cb - cumulonimbus clouds at the head of the front hidden in low stratiform clouds, turbulence and icing. strong gusty surface wind.

15. In the definition of standard atmosphere the pressure and temperature values at mean sea level are:

1015 hPa, +10°C 1013,25 hPa, 0°C 1013,25 hPa, +15°C

16. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. increased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.

17. What are the possible wind direction indicators in a strange place where there is no wind sock?

Grass waves, smoke, tree shaking, moving dust or other light objects in the air. Circling of birds of prey, direction of cloud shades movement and waves on water surfaces. Positions of gliders on the ground which landed earlier.

18. The take off control includes:

the check of glider and harness wear and tear, stitching, carabiners, helmet and instruments. the check of canopy, carabiners, weather and space in the direction of flight and landing. the check of harness, lines, canopy, weather and space.

19. What does the term „spin” mean?

Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. Symmetric paragider stall. A spiral.

20. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Seven. Five.

21. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering.

22. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

topographic area. topographic situation. map projections.

23. Geographical meridian is:

a circle around the globe. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis. a half of meridian circle.

24. 9 cm in map with 1 : 500 000 scale refers of real distance:

45 km 60 km 50 km

25. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

There is no difference. 1 hour. 2 hours.

26. Direction south is reported by:

360° 180° 090°

27. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

declination. alitude. negative hight, so called dephtines.

28. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull the steering fully. to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

29. For emergency landing You would prefer:

buildings. water. trees.

30. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

wait until the glider stops itself. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. pull the A risers or lines.

31. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it.

32. The reserve parachute is used so that:

Pull the rezerve parachute handle; when the needles are torn out, the reserve parachute opening system is activated. Pull the reserve parachute from the harness and throw it into a free space letting go the handle too. By pulling the handle the reserve parachute is activated; the handle can be lost.

33. After a tall tree landing:

you should climb down as fast as possible to show that you are OK. you should do maximum via reachable means to get professional rescue help (a cellphone or radio call, waiting for friends, whistle ect.) you should wait until your friends come and then you climb down while they are ready to catch you if needed.

34. The aircraft must not fly at such a distance from other aircraft that would:

restrict the other aircraft. be less then 150m. create a collision hazard.

35. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground.

36. VFR flights in Class G airspace must be carried out so that the aircraft flew:

at a distance to the clouds more than 5 km horizontally and 300 m vertically. at a distance to the clouds more than 1,5 km horizontally and 150 m vertically. outside the clouds with permanent ground visibility.

37. A proof of liability insurance must be on board during all flights.

No. Yes. Not during an airport flight.

38. Airport operations are:

all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area. all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport.

39. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR. to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN.

40. Conducting a paragliding training is only allowed to:

a competition pilot, a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training. a sport pilot and a PG instructor. a PG instructor and a PG instructor in training.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. sun and wrong packing. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

43. Fractures of upper limbs are preferably fixed by:

hanging in a triangular bandage. using an improvised splint (branch, stick, etc.). tightening to the body in extended position.

44. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important).

45. Choose the true statement about the obligation to provide first aid:

Everyone who witnesses an accident is obliged to provide first aid, regardless of the severity of injury and danger. The obligation to provide first aid is only moral and it is not legally enforceable. If there is serious injury, everybody is obliged to provide first aid; this assistance must not endanger the life or health of the firstaider.

46. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

the deepest compressions. timely starting and continuity of compressions. the highest possible frequency of compressions.

47. During ridge soaring after a collapse about 10 meters above ground a pilot landed hard on his left side; He is obviously shaken, however gets up, then collapses, is pale, reports pain in his hip, shakes, he wants to sleep, a little confused, but strictly refuses an offered call for an ambulance. The procedure will be:

We are trying to calm him down, keep him in a position which is the most comfortable for him, cover him and call the emergency services. We lay him in shade into semi sitting position and check him occasionally during flying. If his condition gets worse, we call help. We lay him in the anti-shock position with his feet up, cover him and call an ambulance.

48. To prevent heat loss the most effective is:

To cover dressed afflicted gently with an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap dressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil. To wrap undressed afflicted tightly in an "anti-shock" foil.

49. If the unconscious afflicted is not breathing:

We start the resuscitation immediately. We promptly transport him to the professional medical service. First we try to free the airway.

50. In practice, we can recognize the malfunction of blood stream (cardiac arrest) by the fact that:

we cannot feel the heart beating on the chest. we cannot feel the pulse at the carotid artery. the afflicted is unresponsive, does not breath or does only gasping breaths and does not move.