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Yes, so simple it is...

Test - PL A

1. The lift on the aerofoil is created by:

densification of streamlines above the aerofoil, the top surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; below the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs beneath the aerofoil. the force of flowing air from front of the aerofoil (when the angel of attack is positive). densification of streamlines below the aerofoil, the lower surface of the aerofoil thus generates a negative pressure; above the aerofoil the streamlines expand and thereby an overpressure occurs above the aerofoil.

2. The total weight of a pilot with all equipment is 100 kg and the area of the glider is 25 m2. The surface load of the paraglider is:

4 kg/m3 0.25 kg/m3 0.4 kg/m3

3. The chord is:

the imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil. the curve that is halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil. the straight line dividing the aerofoil in the middle of its thickness into two equal parts.

4. Larger part of lift is generated:

above 2/3 of the aerofoil, around 55%. below the aerofoil, around 2/3. above the aerofoil, around 2/3.

5. Turning of a paraglider is the result of:

changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on one half of the canopy. changes in the distribution of aerodynamic forces on the canopy. changes of the size of projected area of the canopy.

6. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing. the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing.

7. The inner wing side angle of attack of a turning paraglider:

is changing because the wing banks in the same moment. is not changing. is changing due to a change of trailing edge position.

8. Induced drag:

arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft. arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft. arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference.

9. The most common wind direction in the valley caused by thermal effects is:

during the night towards the hill. during the day towards the hill. during the day down the hill.

10. In the area of high pressure in the northern hemisphere the wind close to the ground is blowing:

clockwise. counter clockwise. strait out from the middle of high pressure in the whole area.

11. Cooling speed of rising air saturated with water vapor is less than of unsaturated air because:

condensation releases heat. water vapor is not cooled as fast as dry air. water vapor absorbs heat radiated by air.

12. The form of precipitation falling out of vertically developed cloud type Cb - cumulonimbus is mostly:

drizzle. light rain. rain and hail.

13. What type of precipitation can be expected on an active cold front?

Drizzle. Light persistent rain. Showers and thunderstorms.

14. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Frontal fog. Radiation fog. Advection fog.

15. Vertical robustness of the troposphere is the greatest:

over the equatorial regions. over the poles. in the temperate zones.

16. When entering a thermal current:

the canopy always tends to collapse and therefore the pilot must brake. the glider informs the pilot by its movements about the strength of the lift and usually also about which direction is better to turn. the glider usually tends to collapse and therefore the pilot should break a bit before turning.

17. What does the term „spin” mean?

Asymmetrical (one side) paraglider stall. A spiral. Symmetric paragider stall.

18. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain.

19. Spiral is performed by:

a smooth transition from a turn into sharper and sharper turn via gradually increased brake input and body weight shift in the same side in which turning. weight shift in the intended turning side, pulling the steering on that side and pulling down the front riser on the other side. pulling at first both the brakes and then loosening one brake all the way up while the other pulling completely down - the paraglider descends circling in a dynamic and fast rotation.

20. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse. the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards.

21. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

decreased. increased. unaffected; only the angle of attack increases.

22. The location of geographical and magnetic poles is:

identical. The magnetic pole is always to the east from the geographical pole. not identical.

23. Terrain formations such as forests, meadows, lakes, castles, roads, railways etc. are called:

map projections. topographic situation. topographic area.

24. Comparative navigation involves:

comparing terrain with a map and vice versa. comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing the calculated times with the reality.

25. 225 degrees is direction:

south west. south east. north west.

26. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

2 hours. There is no difference. 1 hour.

27. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground.

28. For emergency landing a pilot would rather choose:

a forest road. dense forest. a lonely tree.

29. A glider with an asymmetric collapse tends to:

turn rapidly to the side with the collapse and then rotate or slowly return into straight flight. fly on, but pilots tend to do unwise piloting inputs. fall quickly and therefore it is necessary to prevent such situations at any cost.

30. Before a landing into still water it is necessary:

to turn the glider against the wind. to jump out of the harness about 3 to 5 m above the water surface. to undo the harness buckles so it was possible to leave it at the moment of contact with water.

31. Your last choice for emergency landing would always be:

a parking. water surface. electric wires.

32. Use the reserve parachute without hesitating:

in rapid uncontrolable rotation. after being blown behind a mountain ridge. under a Cumulonimbus cloud.

33. If one side of canopy is stalled, the pilot should:

hold down the already pulled steering and counter-steer the rotation by weight-shift. pull the second steering fully and then release both. release the steering continuously.

34. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right. You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left.

35. From a sport aircraft (SLZ) it is forbidden:

to drop things between sunrise and sunset. to drop anything or spray, except under certain conditions. to spray.

36. VFR flights in C, D and E classes airspace may be carried out at a distance from clouds:

at least 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. only the first at the cloud base pilot can fly in into the cloud. outside the clouds and in visibility of ground.

37. The information about CTR, TMA, LKR, LKP position is in:

ADAC map. valid AIP or ICAO map. official CAA map.

38. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner.

39. Flying a paraglider is allowed:

in VFR conditions during a day; a day is considered as a time period between sunrise and sunset. only during a day, which means between morning civil twilight and evening civil twilight or in a similar period of time which can be designated by a competent authority. from sunset to sunrise.

40. Airport operations are:

all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport. all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

42. Risers are:

up-going thermal currents. the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. pilots who get up early.

43. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation. the process should be as fast as possible. caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway.

44. The most effective anti shock precautions in laic first aid (after securing vital functions) are:

thermal comfort, lots of sweet liquids, position on side. convenient position, thermal comfort, calming. fracture fixing, wound and abrasions treatment.

45. The first aid basics of wounds and abrasions treatment are:

Removing any foreign objects by rinsing, disinfecting the wound area and covering bandage. Desinfecting the wound (in emergency using even concentrated alcohol), removing any foreign objects, covering. Covering; in improvised conditions we never clean the wound and do not remove any foreign object from it.

46. Improvised tourniquet is to be applied:

always about 10 - 15 cm above the wound. anywhere between the wound and heart. only at arm or thigh, between a wound and heart.

47. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.

48. If it is obvious that the action of rescue helicopter is necessary, in the Czech Republic it is preferably needed to call number:

155 1210 112

49. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat.

50. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important). is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen.