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Test - PL A

1. In a steady gliding flight there is a balance between:

the gravity force and resultant aerodynamic force. the weight of the aircraft and lift. the drag and the gravity force.

2. Which of the following pilot inputs increases the angle of attack?

Pulling the steering. Releasing the steering. Pushing the speed system.

3. The separation of streamlines is when:

turbulent flow around the upper surface of the wing switches to laminar flow. the streamlines leave the aerofoil after copying its shape. the airflow becomes detached from the surface of the aerofoil.

4. At minimum speed:

the paraglider or powered paraglider is close to stall. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the longest. the paraglider or powered paraglider will fly the farthest.

5. The wing aspect ratio:

is a relationship between span and air foil thickness. is a relationship between span squared and wing surface. is a relationship between chord length and air foil thickens.

6. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag. parasitic drag and supportive drag.

7. If the angle of attack increases, the forward speed:

decreases. increases. stays the same.

8. Induced drag:

arises as a result of interference between flows around different parts of an aircraft. arises as a result of air flow from the lower wing surface, around the wingtip, towards the upper wing surface due to a pressure difference. arises as a result of parasitic energy induced by air rfiction around an aircraft.

9. The boundary between two air masses, with the weather in one air mass significantly differing from the weather in the other air mass is called:

Front. Air masses boundary. Weather boundary.

10. Humidity means:

precipitation fall the amount of water vapor in the air snowing

11. The main cause of atmospheric convection is:

sufficient air heating on the earth's surface during unstable stratification. the day and night temperature difference. uneven heating of the earth's surface of different colors.

12. A cold front progresses faster than a warm front, the warm sector at the ground level gradually narrows and the warm air in this region is forced up into the higher layers. This process is called:

cyclone extinction. oclusion. cyclone filling.

13. Isobars are lines on surface weather maps that connect points:

of the same humidity. of the same pressure recalculated to the sea level. of the same temperature recalculated to the sea level.

14. Characteristic typical for the troposphere is:

isothermal stratification. temperature drop with hight. rise of pressure with hight.

15. Which types of clouds are typical for a warm front cloud system:

Cu – cumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cb – cumulonimbus Ns – nimbostratus, As – altostratus, Cs – cirostratus Sc – stratocumulus, Ac – altocumulus, Cc – cirocumulus

16. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge. the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station.

17. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

18. B-stall is performed by:

by gradual pulling the first row risers. by gradual pulling the rear row risers. by pulling the second row risers.

19. How many items is there in the pre start check?

Three. Seven. Five.

20. The heading of aircraft and its direction of movement compare to ground is:

the same when flying in no wind or exactly against the wind or with the wind. the same when flying in no wind or with the wind exactly from left or right. always the same.

21. When entering a downdraft:

the canopy tilts backwards and can shoot forward afterwards. the canopy shoots forward and there is a danger of frontal collapse. the canopy tilts sidewards and can get asymmetric collapse.

22. When performing comparative orientation it is always more reliable:

to focus on one landmark. to carefully view the terrain below the aircraft. to locate and identify several landmarks.

23. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

2 hours. 1 hour. There is no difference.

24. Comparative navigation involves:

comparison of data of navigation devices (GPS) with a map. comparing terrain with a map and vice versa. comparing the calculated times with the reality.

25. Geographical meridian is:

a circle around the globe. a half of meridian circle. a segment of a circle whose plane is perpendicular to the earth's axis.

26. Contour lines are curves connecting points of the same:

alitude. declination. negative hight, so called dephtines.

27. When comparing the map with the terrain the most important is:

accurate watch. accurate compass. to carefully view the terrain ahead of the aircraft, alongside the aircraft and consistently compare the map with the terrain.

28. During ground handling training the glider lifts the pilot above the ground in a wind gust unexpectedly. The correct procedure is:

to pull and release the steering repeatedly and by such flapping go back to the ground. to pull the steering fully. to release the steering and fly, steer and land back to the ground.

29. Your special equipment for safety maneuvers training should be:

a life jacket and a flare. a life jacket, an orange helmet and light shoes. a life jacket, a hook knife for cutting lines or risers.

30. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground. By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn.

31. When landing in water surface a pilot should steer the glider:

with the wind. against the wind. with the wind from a side.

32. In mid-air collision about 50 to 100 m above the terrain the correct procedure is:

to execute a descending maneuvre. using the reserve parachute. stalling the glider and so clear the contact with the other aircraft.

33. If a pilot is being dragged by strong wind along the ground, he should:

pull the A risers or lines. pull the steering lines or rear lines/risers. wait until the glider stops itself.

34. Two of the same category aircrafts are flying in one track against each other. Na vstřícné trati letí letadla stejné kategorie. Actions of avoidance are:

You will turn to the right, the other aircraft will turn to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the left. Both aircrafts will change their curse to the right.

35. LAA regulation, which governs the rules of flying a paraglider in the Czech Republic is called:

ZL - 3 ZL - 1 PL - 2

36. The pilot of the aircraft not equipped with a radio intending to arrive or leave an uncontrolled airport should:

coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the airfield owner. observe, for the departure or arrival, the avoidance rules. coordinate in advance their arrival or departure with the AFIS unit or the aerodrome operator.

37. To recalculate a figure in meters into figure in feet we use the simplified formula:

(m x 3) + 10% (m : 10) x 3 (m x 3) : 10

38. Except for takeoff or landing or except by permission issued by the Authority a VFR flight must be conducted above the ground or water at a height of not less than:

150 m 300 m 150 m except for ridge soaring.

39. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN. to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR.

40. Airport operations are:

all vehicles and persons operations on the aerodrome area. all flying aircrafts and aircrafts on the aerodrome operational area. all traffic at the aerodrome area and all aircrafts flying in the vicinity of the airport.

41. Risers are:

the webbings which connect a glider's suspension lines to a pilot's harness. up-going thermal currents. pilots who get up early.

42. Initial examination includes:

vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. During an unsuccessful landing a pilot flew through a window and cut his wrist so badly that the wound is heavily bleeding, blood squirts. 10 cm long piece of broken glass projects from the wound. The afflicted person is conscious, pale, complaining of pain in his right ankle which is evidently deformed. We'll call an ambulance and:

lay the afflicted down on his back with legs lifted, apply a tourniquet on his forearm tightening it gently. We do not pull out the piece of glass on principle. fix the leg, lay the afflicted in the anti shock position, lift the wounded hand up and if the bleeding doesn’t stop, apply a compressing bandage. put the afflicted in a semi sitting position, pull out the sherd and apply compressing bandage.

44. Resuscitation (animation) is needed to be performed if the afflicted:

is unresponsive, not moving and not breathing, or only "gasping" breaths are seen. is unresponsive, not moving, regardless of the state of breathing (a layperson is not able to reliably judge the respiratory status). is unresponsive and there is no pulse on carotid artery (the breathing state is not important).

45. A layperson without special training is performing resuscitation:

by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 30:2. by chest compressions and artificial respiration in ratio 15:2. by chest compressions only.

46. Choose the true statement about improvised transport:

Unless it is necessary the patient should not be transported before the arrival of professional assistance. The priority of an improvised transport is speed. The most important is that the afflicted stays in a slightly inclined position with head down during the whole transport.

47. "Gasping breaths" mean:

noticeably fast but quiet and shallow breathing, typical for a patient with an airway obstruction. noticeably noisy breaths in fast pace; these breaths are typical for developing shock-like state. individual breaths in noticeably long intervals by the unconscious afflicted; these breaths are typical for cardiac arrest.

48. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation. the process should be as fast as possible. caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway.

49. Choose the true statement about heat loss after an injury:

Mild hypothermia is in terms of first aid advantageous because it inhibits the metabolic processes and thus slows the onset of shock. Severe and prolonged hypothermia is harmful, preventing heat loss is therefore of particular importance for injuries in the winter and in poorly accessible terrain. Preventing heat loss is especially important because possible hypothermia is unpleasant and stressful for the afflicted. But this is not the priority for first aid. Maintaining body temperature is one of the most energy-intensive vital processes. Fight against heat loss therefore belongs - especially with severe injuries - amongst life-saving acts with high priority.

50. Resuscitation without artificial respiration is performed:

by chest compression at rate of about 60 times per minute so that resultant minute rate would be the same as there was also the artificial respiration. by continuous chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute. by chest compression at rate of about 100 times per minute; instead of artificial breath there is a break after every 30 compressions for 5 seconds.