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Test - PL A

1. The aerodynamic drag is a sum of:

parasitic drag, form drag, interference drag and rolling drag. parasitic drag and supportive drag. form drag, friction drag, induced drag and interference drag.

2. Spiral is a flight mode when:

the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the outer side of the turning wing. the flow gets separated from the aerofoil on the inner side of the turning wing. the air flow doesn’t detach from the aerofoil.

3. What size and direction is the resultant aerodynamic force in a steady gliding flight?

It is oppositely oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends. It is the same size and of the opposite direction as the gravityy force. It is equally oriented but smaller then gravity force and that is why the paraglider in steady air always descends.

4. When a paraglider is in steady flight in an ideal environment (no wind) at a glide ratio 6, then it means that:

its velocity is 6 m/s. it will fly 1 km far from the altitude of 6 km. it will fly 6 km far from the altitude of 1 km.

5. The dynamic stability of a paraglider means:

that if unbalanced it is not completely returning into steady flight. that if unbalanced it returns into steady flight. that it is easy to steer, especially in aerobatics.

6. When the surface load changes the glide ratio:

changes because the relation between lift and drag does not change. does not change because the relation between lift coefficient and drag coefficient does not change. changes because effective bearing area is the same.

7. If the pilot weight increases, the wing glide ratio:

increases. decreases. stays the same.

8. What will be the change of flow speed and static air pressure in a place where the streamline density increases?

The speed will increase, the static pressure will increase. The speed will increase, the static pressure will decrease. The speed will decrease, the static pressure will decrease.

9. Which of the listed fog types is usually dissolved by increasing surface wind speed?

Radiation fog. Advection fog. Frontal fog.

10. Dew point temperature is:

is the air temperature with determined relative humidity. the air temperature in given altitude. the air temperature at the saturation status moment.

11. Cooling speed of rising air saturated with water vapor is less than of unsaturated air because:

water vapor absorbs heat radiated by air. water vapor is not cooled as fast as dry air. condensation releases heat.

12. In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

Liquid into gas. Solid substance into gas. Gas into liquid.

13. What prevents the air flow from areas of high pressure directly into the area of low air pressure?

The force caused by the pressure gradient. The Coriolis force. Friction on the earth's surface.

14. The basic cause of mechanical turbulence is:

the air mass stratification. wind and configuration of terrain. the air mass humidity and temperature.

15. The basic cause of cloud formation in the atmosphere is:

achieving a state of saturation. decrease of air temperature with height. achieving a state of saturation followed by water vapor condensation.

16. I increase the flight speed by:

depressing the speed system. pulling the trimmers. pulling a bit of steering.

17. The take off direction and place choice is subject to:

the wind reported by the nearest meteorological station. the wind in the valley by the landing zone. the wind at the take off considering the wind direction above the mountain ridge.

18. Ridge soaring is practiced so that:

we soar the wind wave just above the mountain ridge turning 180° at the turn points no matter what direction. we fly alongside a slope just above its lee side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points which means against the slope. we fly alongside a slope at its windward side turning 180° into the wind at the turn points.

19. By releasing the speed system the flight speed is:

unaffected; only the angle of attack increases. increased. decreased.

20. In stronger wind it is better to take off:

so that the canopy is at the level of mountain top and the pilot a bit lower. down at a sufficient distance from the mountain top. at the top of the mountain.

21. So called escaping maneuvers include:

spiral, spin and B-stall. spiral, full-stall and B-stall. spiral, big ears and B-stall.

22. Which of the following conditions is the most important for comparative navigation?

A good map and navigation skills of the pilot. Experience of the pilot and his estimation. Navigational preparation before flight, map, visibility of ground.

23. Time is reported:

in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 1. sec and ends with 60. sec. in hours, minutes and seconds, so that a minute begins with 31. sec of a past minute and ends with 30. sec of actual minute. in degrees.

24. Course is measured in degrees from north:

clockwise. clockwise to the east and counterclockwise to the west. counterclockwise.

25. The earth axix is a line intersecting the center of the earth perpendicularly to the equator. The points where this line intersects the earth surface are called poles and they are:

the marine poles. the magnetic poles. the geological poles.

26. The difference between UTC and Central European Summer Time (CEST) time is:

2 hours. There is no difference. 1 hour.

27. Sooner then in Prague, the sun rises in:

Moscow. Paris. London.

28. The best when blown behind a ridge is: Při přefouknutí přes kopec je nejbezpečnější

to do big ears which will help to fly through turbulences by increasing surface load of the wing. to fly with the wind as far as possible to a possible emergency landing field. to use a reserve parachute which is more stable in turbulences.

29. During flight a pilot should have his cellphone (if it is available):

in the back harness pocket so it could not break or harm the pilot in case of accident. in a place, where he can reach it by any hand from the flying position. in any place, because he cannot telephone during flight anyway.

30. You miscounted the landing approach and need to shorten it. You are 30 m above the ground:

By flying in figure eight or S turns you loose hight before the final glide. In such altitude is best to make a 360 turn. By pulling tips of the wing via the right lines you can reduce the effective surface of the wing and glide under a better angle to the ground.

31. After an asymmetric collapse the correct procedure is:

no sudden piloting inputs; a certified paraglider will return into straight flight itself. pulling the steering on the not collapsed side quickly and fully to help the regeneration of the canopy. weight shift in the not collapsed side of the glider and brake the same side slightly to stop rotation.maximálně se vyklonit na nezaklopenou stranu a také ji přibrzdit tak, aby nedošlo k rotaci

32. If the steering line brakes, the correct procedure is:

steering via weight shift and cautious pulling of the rear risers. turning only in the side where the steering line is OK. steering by another suitable line and the other steering line or, if there is enough hight, use the reserve parachute.

33. When sucked in a vertically developed cloud the best to do is:

to keep circling through the cloud as high as possible and so fly over it. to steer the glider straight into the lightest part of the cloud. to perform the most effective escape maneuver and try to keep flying against the wind.

34. A Czech paraglider technical certificate is issued:

always by a Paragliding Technical Inspector of LAA CR. by a producer’s technical inspector for category „P” and by LAA CR for category „Z”. always by a designated Paragliding Operations Inspector of LAA CR.

35. A "P" technical certificate of a paraglider may be issued:

only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR, PL - 2, DHV or CEN. only to a paraglider which successfully passed its test program in accordance with AFNOR. to any paraglider produced by a manufacturer authorized by LAA CR.

36. The aircraft, that is obliged by the rules to give way to another aircraft, must:

avoided so that the maintained vertical distance between aircrafts was 150 m. avoided so that the maintained horizontal distance between aircrafts was 300 m. avoid by flying above or under or cross the other aircraft flight line at a sufficient distance.

37. Who is authorized to check a pilot's license or student document?

Paragliding operations inspector and Paragliding technical inspector of LAA CR, a person authorized by the Ministry of Transport or the CAA of the CR, Czech Police. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, Czech Police, Czech CAA inspector, a person authorized by an airport or property owner. Paragliding operations inspector of LAA CR, person authorized of Ministry of Transport, Czech Police or local municipal authority personnel.

38. To indicate the height after passing through the transition altitude the setting goes from QNH values:

to the altimeter setting at QFE of the target airport and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in hight over the target airport. to the altimeter setting at the value of 1013.2 hPa and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed in flight levels. to the altimeter setting at QFE and vertical positions of the aircraft are expressed as hight above the ground.

39. Restricted air space (LK R):

can be passed through under specified conditions. must not be passed through. must be passed through.

40. Responsibility of the pilot (commander) of the aircraft:

The aircraft commander has not the right to take a final decision on the execution of the flight. The aircraft commander is responsible for execution of the flight under the rules of flying, let he alone controls the plane or not, except in cases when circumstances force a deviation from these rules in the interest of safety. The aircraft commander is not responsible for the execution of the flight when he received takeoff clearance from air traffic control services.

41. A paraglider is the most damaged by:

winch tow flying, powered paragliding and operation on wet grass. UV rays, wet storage and abrasion. sun and wrong packing.

42. Initial examination includes:

finding the circumstances of the incident, the patient's problems and possible diseases which he is suffering. vital functions check according to the chart A-B-C. fast check of the afflicted „from head to toe” with emphasis on injury signs.

43. Signal to perform by a person on the ground to cancel the need of rescue helicopter landing is:

to stand and rhythmically move arms up and down wit palms turned upwards. to stand with one arm up and second arm along the body (a paraphrase of the letter N). to wave by any object of red color.

44. If one layer of pressure bandage is not enough to stop bleeding from a wound on leg:

We urge the arrival of emergency services and re-emphasize the urgency of the case. We apply another 1 or 2 layers or, if still not enough, use a tourniquet. We take off the old bandage and apply a new one and tighten it better.

45. During an improvised transport of an unconscious afflicted:

caution is not important because the unconscious afflicted doesn’t feel pain anyway. special attention should be payed to caution and head fixation. the process should be as fast as possible.

46. If the arrival of a rescue helicopter is expected, rescuers on the ground should stand so that:

they were in the best possible place for a landing; just before touchdown they move in front of the helicopter. they were always in the visual field of the helicopter pilot. they were evenly distributed around the expected landing site and they could prevent potential arrival of other persons.

47. Treatment of wounds and fractures fixation of the afflicted by the accident is in the first aid performed:

only after the afflicted is out of vital functions malfunction danger. always if there are gaping (deep) wounds and/or open fractures. always as a priority on any wound or fracture.

48. For the quality of resuscitation, the most crucial is:

the deepest compressions. timely starting and continuity of compressions. the highest possible frequency of compressions.

49. A pilot should have his mobile phone:

placed so that it could be reached in any position of pilot’s body. switched off because the aviation regulations forbid the use of mobile phones in flight. placed in the pocket of the harness so that it could not cause any injury in case of an accident.

50. An afflicted suddenly collapsed during the ascent of the hill, he is lying down not moving, takes a deep breath about once in twenty seconds. Another witness of the incident tries to feel pulse on his neck and reports weak and rapid pulse. It is necessary to call for help immediately and:

Initiate artificial respiration because this breathing frequency is too low. Indirect heart massage is not needed because there are heartbeats and massage might damage lungs. Initiate resuscitation. So called "gasping breaths" are typical of sudden cardiac arrest. Pulse palpation by layman is unreliable and is not used for large number of errors - the first aider can feel his own heartbeat. Turn the afflicted into a stabilized position because there is a risk of vomit aspiration.